-------
SOURCE: LOS ANGELES COUNTY SANITATION DISTRICTS
FIGURE 2(a)-9 TYPICAL DISASSEMBLED GAS PROBE
2(a)-21
-------
CAP
PERFORATED P.V C.
PIPE COVERED WITH
FIBERGLASS CLOTH
i^; \*^L-r ' *** "' "**«
T-2' SCREEN -
WATER TABLE
LEGEND:
IMPERMEABLE PLUGS
P6A GRAVEL
BOREHOLE CUTTINGS
SOURCE ENVIRONMENT CANADA
FIGURE 2(a)-10 MULTI-LEVEL PERMANENT GAS PROBE INSTALLATION
2(a)-22
-------
jig" OIA.(-«
GAS SAMPLING TUBE
GROUND SURFACE
GAS PROBE
SOURCE: SCS ENGINEERS
TYPICAL SECTION
{NO SCALE)
FIGURE 2(al-11 TYPICAL MULTI-LEVEL GAS SAMPLING PROBE INSTALLATION
2 (a)-23
-------
Multiple probe installations may be placed in the same hole, or in
separate holes in the same location. Normally a boring rig or portable
power auger will be needed to excavate for the installation of the
deeper probes. Deep probes should not be sampled for at least 24 hours
after installation. Non-pressurized utility lines leaving the site or
alongside it should also be monitored.
When sampling with a combustible gas indicator, samples should be
withdrawn with the vacuum pump or hand bulb until a constant reading
is obtained. When vacuum bottles are being used, at least the volume of
air or gas in the probe and line should be withdrawn before talcing a
sample. The location or probe number, the time and date and the results
should be recorded.
If the site has a gas control or recovery system in operation,
the sampling points should be located at the property boundary on
the opposite side of any trench or pipes with respect to the disposal ^
area and the property boundary. It may be necessary to locate the
sampling points off the facility if the control system is located at
the property boundary.
Sampling should preferably be done when the soil surface has been
wet or frozen for several days. The results, location, date and time
should be recorded. If any of the readings are equal to or greater
than the LEL (5 percent), then the facility is not in compliance. It
might be desirable to repeat the tests at a later date or under different
climatic conditions to verify the readings. Where pumping control
systems are being used, samples should be taken when all pumps have
been shut down for their maximum time during normal operation.
2(a)-24
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Chapter 2.(a)
SAFETY - EXPLOSIVE GASES
Criterion Compliance Decision
Q] Complies
O Does Not Comply
1. Is methane generated?
n YES (Continue to 2)
D Landfill with organic waste
D Surface impoundment generating methane with a facility
structure in contact with the liquid
Q NO (COMPLIES)
D Landfill with no organic waste
D Landfill less than one year old
D Surface impoundment with no structures located adjacent to
or above the disposal area
n Landspreading operations
2. Is methane prevented from migrating beyond the property boundary and
accumulating in facility structures?
D YES (COMPLIES)
D Facility located on impervious rock
G Facility located on saturated soil or surrounded by surface
water
D Facility with gas venting or recovery systems
D Facility with recent monitoring records showing no migration
O NO (Does not comply - continue to 3)
3 . Ranking of f aciJ ities based on potential for methane hazard at the time
of the Inventory.
O High priority (continue to 4)
D History of methane-related fires or explosions
O Monitor ing results that indicate a migration problem
D Location in sand and gravel pits, and facility or off -site
structures within 1200 feet
D Ranking from Table 2 (a) -2
O Medium priority
D Vegetative stress within 1200 feet, but no facility or off-
site structures
D Ranking from Table 2 (a) -2
2 (a) -27
-------
Chapter 2 (a)
SAFETY - EXPLOSIVE GASES
(Continued)
Q Low priority
QNo off-site structures within 1200 feet
D Ranking from Table 2 (a)-2
4. Do the concentrations of methane, as determined by monitoring, exceed
25 percent of the LEL in facility structures or the LEL at the property
boundary?
DYES (Does not comply)
n NO (COMPLIES)
4
2(a)-28
-------
CHAPTER 2(b)
SAFETY - FIRES
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
(b) Fires. A facility or practice shall
not pose a hazard to the safety of
persons or property from fires. This may
be accomplished through compliance
with § 257.3-7 and through the periodic
application of cover material or other
techniques as appropriate.
(e) As used in this section:
(6) "Periodic application of cover
material" means the application and
compaction of soil or other suitable
material over disposed solid waste at
the end of each operating day or at such
frequencies and in such a manner as to
reduce the risk of fire and to impede
disease vectors' access to the waste.
2,0 Inventory Procedure
The Fires Criterion is satisified when a facility does not pose
a hazard to the safety of persons or property fron fires. The general
procedure is to first eliminate from farther consideration (complies)
those facilities handling non-flammable wastes.
The remaining facilities are then evaluated for:
compliance with the Air Criterion
periodic cover application
adequate operating procedures to control fires should
they occur
The compliance decision flow chart is shown in Figure 2(b)-l.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Does the facility have the potential for fire occurrence?
A facility which receives only non-flammable or non-combustible
waste, such as rock and earth, or processing wastes and non-combustible
2 (b) -1
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sludges, liquids and aqueous solutions does not have the potential
for a fire hazard and therefore it complies with the Fire Criterion.
If a facility accepts flammable or combustible waste, the next
step is to determine whether it meets the Air Criterion, (Flow chart
question 2; see Chapter 1.)
3.2 Does the facility comply with Section 257,3-7, the Air Criterion?
A facility is limited by the Air Criterion to only open buring
of agriculture wastes in the field, silvicultural wastes for forest
management purposes, land-clearing debris, diseased trees, debris from
emergency clean-up operations and ordnance; and, further, must not
violate the applicable requirements developed under a State
Implementation Plan (SIP) approved or promulgated by the Administrator
pursuant to Section 110 of the Clean Air Act.
The evaluation procedure is merely to determine if the facility
has complied with the Air Criterion, Chapter 1.
3.3 Is periodic cover material applied?
For the purpose of the Inventory, the application and compaction
of soil or other suitable materials over all combustible solid waste
at the end of each operating day is sufficient to reduce the risk of
fire and satisfy the requirements of the criterion. For those landfill
facilities operating 24 hours per day, it is sufficient to apply cover
once each operating day. These facilities which do not practice daily
covering of all conbustible waste or that open burn must next be
evaluated for the adequacy of any periodic cover and other fire control
techniques.
For landspreading operations handling combustible solid waste,
incorporation of all waste into the soil at the; end of each operating
day in accordance with Chapter 7 is sufficient to meet periodic cover
requirements.
2(b)-3
-------
3,4 Hoes the facility have adequate opera tang procedures to control
fires should they occur?
Where a facility does not or cannot completely cover all
combustible solid waste at the end of each operating day or where
open burning is practiced, (even in compliance with the Mr Criterion)
it is necessary to employ adequate operating techniques to prevent
and/or control fires, including underground fires.
(a) ..At a landfill where open burning is practiced, .common
control measures include:
supervision while burning is practiced
limitation of access to users while burning occurs
established arrangements with the local fire department
earth stockpiles near the burning area "
arrangements for, or on-site availability of. heavy
equipment to control spread of fire
water supply under sufficient pressure
fire extinguishers
presence of firebreaks or firelanes
Determination of compliance is facility specific with regard to
whether one or more of these measures is sufficient to assure that
the open burning does not pose a hazard to the safety of persons or
property. A review of existing records and/or new inspections will be
needed to make this determination.
(b) A landfill, where cover material is not applied to all
combustible waste at the end of each operating day, must also be
evaluated. The following should be considered in deciding whether
there is a fire hazard.
2(b)-4
-------
previous inspections and reports
permit conditions (for a fire protection plan)
complaint record
the frequency of spreading and compacting of all
combustible waste
supervision of waste unloading to ensure that hot loads
and special wastes that have a high potential for
starting fires are unloaded a safe distance from the
working face. (Also, supervision of the waste unloading
area is required to prevent users from intentionally or
accidentally setting waste on fire.)
the practice of extinguishing hot or burning loads with
soil or water before incorporating them into the fill
presence of earth stockpiles located near the working
face
presence of a water supply under sufficient pressure
available at the working face
presence of fire extinguishers on all solid waste handling
equipment
established arrangements with the local fire fighting
department
arrangements for availability of heavy equipment to
extinguish fires
presence of firebreaks or firelanes
Determination of compliance is facility specific as to whether
those methods being employed are sufficient so that fires do not
pose a hazard.
2(b)-5
-------
(c) For surface inpoundments the determination is again facility
specific. The evaluation should include whether combustible
wastes are properly handled or stored to prevent fire and the
techniques that are employed to control fires. The following
factors should be considered:
mixing of wastes to reduce flammability
presence of suitable fire extinguishing equipment for
the type of waste (water under pressure, foam, properly
rated extinguishers)
arrangements with local fire department or trained
on-site personnel
ability to rapidly drain wastes and control inflow
ability to isolate waste
accessibility to the impoundment by fire fighting
equipment
(d) At landspreading facilities where combustible waste is being
handled, site specific determinations should consider the
following factors:
availability of suitable fire extinguishing equipment
for the type of waste (water under pressure, foam, or
properly rated extinguishers)
arrangements with local fire department
accessibility to the facility by fire fighting equipment
2(b)-6
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Chapter 2(b)
SAFETY - FIRES
Criterion Compliance Decision
D Complies
LlDoes Not Comply
1. Does the facility have the potential for fire occurrence?
DYES (Continue to 2)
Q NO (COMPLIES)
DFacility receives only non-flammable, non-combustible wastes
2. Does the facility comply with Section 257.3-7, of the Air Criterion?
D YES (COMPLIES)
DThe facility controls the occurrence of fires through
compliance with Section 237.3-7
CH NO (Continue to 3)
3. is periodic cover material applied so as to reduce the risk of fire?
Q YES (COMPLIES)
Dlhe facility applies and compacts cover over combustible
solid waste at the end of the operating day
Dlhe facility applies and compacts cover at least once
every 24 hours
DThe facility incorporates all waste into the soil at the
end of the operating day
CD NO ("Jontinue to 4)
4. Does the facility have adequate operating procedures to control fires
should they occur?
n YES (COMPLIES)
DLandfill minimizes fire hazards when conducting open burning,
such as:
DSupervision during burning
DLimiting access during burning
DEstablished arrangements with the local fire department
DEarth stockpiles near the burning area
D On-site availability of heavy equipment to extinguish fires
DWater supply under sufficient pressure is available
D Fire extinguishers are available
D Firebreaks or fire lanes are present
2(b)-7
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Chapter 2 (b)
SAFETY - FIFES
(Continued)
D Landfill minimizes fire hazards by proper operating procedures;
D Previous inspections and reports indicate no problem
D Permit conditions are being followed (for a fire
protection plan)
D No complaints have been made
D Records of local fire department indicate no citations
have been given
D High frequency of spreading and compacting all combustible
wastes
D Waste materials with high fire potential are unloaded a
safe distance from the working face
D Unloading of wastes adequately supervised
D Hot or burning loads are extinguished with water or soil
before incorporating into the fill
D Earth stockpiles are located near the working face
D Water supply under sufficient pressure is available at
the working face
D Fire extinguishers present on all equipment and buildings
D Arrangements are established with local fire fighting
departments
D On-site availability of heavy equipment to extinguish fires
D Firebreaks, fire lanes are present
D Surface impoundment minimizes fire hazards by proper handling
and storage of liquid wastes:
D Wastes are mixed to reduce flammability
D Suitable fire extinguishing equipment is present
D Established arrangements with local fire department or
trained on-site personnel
D Wastes can be rapidly drained or waste flow can be controlled
D Waste can be isolated
D Impoundment is readily accessible by fire-fighting equipment
O Landspreading facility minimizes fire hazards by proper operating
procedures:
D Suitable fire-fighting equipment is available
D Established arrangements with local fire department
D Facility is readily accessible by fire-fighting equipment
NO (Does not comply)
2(b)-S
-------
CHAPTER 2(c)
SAFETY - BIRD HAZARDS TO AIRCRAFT
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
(c) Bird hazards to aircraft. A facility
or practice disposing of putrescibla
wastes that may attract birds and which
occurs within 10,000 feet (3,048 meters)
of any airport runway used by turbojet
aircraft or within 5,000 feet (1,524
meters) of any airport runway used by
only piston-type aircraft shall not pose a
bird hazard to aircraft.
(e) As used in this section:
(1) "Airport" means public-use airport
open to the public without prior
permission and without restrictions
within the physical capacities of
available facilities.
(2) "Bird hazard" means an increase
in the likelihood of bird/aircraft
collisions that may cause damage to the
aircraft or injury to its occupants.
(7) "Putrescible wastes" means solid
waste which contains organic matter
capable of being decomposed by
microorganisms and of such a character
and proportion as t> be capable of
attracting or providing food for birds.
2.0 Inventory Procedure
Solid waste disposal facilities have been found by study and
observation to be artificial attractants of birds, often providing a
feeding, watering and roosting area. In the vicinity of airports, an
increase in bird populations may increase the probability of a bird
strike to aircraft. Thus, disposal facililities located in the
vicinity of airports, with uncontrolled populations of birds, may
contribute to a bird hazard to aircraft.
For the purpose of the Inventory, the classification process
consists of:
(1) The elimination from further consideration (compliance)
of certain facilities based on their location (distance to
airports).
(2) The elimination from further consideration (compliance)
of certain facilities based on the type of waste received
(non-putrescible).
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2(c)-2
-------
(3) Ranking of the remaining disposal facilities based on
airports with known bird hazards.
(4) The determination of whether a disposal facility poses a
bird hazard to aircraft.
The compliance decision flow chart is presented in Figure 2(c)-1.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Is the disposal facility within the specified distances of a
public-use airport?
Disposal facilities farther than 10,000 feet from any airport
runway used by turbojet aircraft or 5,000 feet from any airport runway
used only by piston-type aircraft automatically comply with the
criterion. Most of these determinations will be obvious. Where there
are questions about classification of the airport, the type of aircraft
using the runway, and the exact distance, the following procedures and
definitions may be used.
Public-use airport, as defined in the criteria, means that anyone
(the public) may use the airport without prior permission and without
restrictions within the physical capacities of available facilities.
This would include those airports that have restrictions based on
safety or environmental considerations, such as:
The number of planes per hour
The hours of operation (noise or safety considerations)
Types of planes; runways too short for turbojet planes
This does not include airports such as:
Those restricted to specific individual or company planes
Agricultural runways
Private individual's airstrips (not open to the public)
2(c)-3
-------
Up-to-date listings of public-use airports are contained in the
appropriate regional Airport/Facility Directory published by the U.S.
Department of Commerce, NQAA, National Ocean Survey, Rockville, Maryland,
20852. The regions for which the directory is published are shown in
Figure 2(c)-2.
Figure 2(c)-2
Where there are questions about the type of aircraft using the
runway, the airport owner or operator should be contacted. If turbojet
aircraft regularly use the runway in non-emergency situations, the
2(c)-4
-------
10,000 foot distance would apply. These situations would include,
but not be limited to:
Scheduled or non-scheduled commercial passenger or
freight service
Private traffic
Military aircraft
The distance from the runway is measured radially from the end
of the runway. The runway is defined as "a defined rectangular area,
on a land airport prepared for the landing and takeoff of aircraft
along its length." (FAA Glossary). Examples of measuring out from
a runway are shown in Figure 2(c)-3.
The determination of distance can be made on recent USGS lh roin
maps, scale aerial photos of the area, or plot plans of the facility
and the surrounding area. Measurement to the disposal facility would
be to the solid waste boundary, as defined on Page 4-1. If no portion
of the facility is within the 10,000 or 5,000 foot radial distance
from the end of the runway, the facility complies with the criterion.
If the facility or portion thereof lies within the specified distance
the evaluation should proceed to the next section.
3.2 Does tine facility accept for disposal putrescible waste that
may attract birds?
This determination is YES, if the disposal facility accepts any
of the following:
residential wastes
food wastes, food marketing wastes, food processing wastes
such as agricultural wastes, or food canning wastes
sewage sludge
septic tank pumpings
2(c)-5
-------
A. BOTH RUNWAYS HANDLING SAME TYPE OF AIRCRAFT
FIGURE 2(c)-3 MEASUREMENT OF DISTANCE FROM RUNWAY
2 (c) -6
-------
RUNWAYS HANDLING DIFFERENT TYPES OF AIRCRAFT
C. SINGLE RUNWAY. EITHER TYPE OF AIRCRAFT
FIGURE 2UI-3 (CONTINUED! MEASUREMENT OF DISTANCE FROM RUNWAY
-------
animal manures
animal carcasses
similar putrescible wastes
This determination is NO, and the facility complies with the
Criterion, if the facility receives only:
fill dirt
clean construction and demolition wastes
inorganic wastes such as ash, metals, plastics, glass,
ceramic, rubber, mineral, or chemical wastes
bulky wastes such as large auto parts, tires, stoves,
and refrigerators
similar non-putrescible wastes 4
State discretion should be used if the facility receives only:
land clearing debris
industrial wastes such as leather, cartons, paper, pulp,
lumber, sawdust, bark
processed wastes such as incinerator residue, shredded, or
baled wastes
3.3 does the disposal facility pose a bird hazard to aircraft.?
In order to pose a bird hazard to aircraft, the disposal facility
must attract birds and increase the likelihood of bird/aircraft collisions
that may cause damage to the aircraft or injury to its occupants. The
complexity that can be involved in this determination precludes immediate
evaluations of all of those facilities not previously eliminated.
Therefore, it is recommended that facilities be ranked according to their
potential to pose a bird hazard. The suggested order of ranking is:
2(c)-8
-------
(a) First Priority - Those facilities which are located within
the specified distances of an airport identified by FAA as having
a solid waste related bird hazard. These facilities are listed
in Appendix 2(c)-l.
(b) Second Priority - Those facilities which are located within
the specified distances of an airport identified by FAA as having
a bird hazard to aircraft. These airports are listed in
Appendix 2(c)-2.
(c) Third Priority - Those facilities which are located within the
specified distances of an airport known to the State Solid Waste
Office as having a bird hazard to aircraft. A list of such
facilities might be obtained from existing office records of:
previous complaints
past inspection reports
previous study or knowledge of a potential problem
and by contacting or referring to:
Airport owners/operators
State aviation office
U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
U.S. EPA Regional Offices
State Wildlife offices
Bird hazard specialists
Airman's Information Manual, Part 3A (published by the
National Flight Data Center)
(d) lowest Priority - Those facilities which are located within the
specified distances and have not previously been eliminated or
ranked.
2(c)-9
-------
The evaluations should be made in the order of the priorities,
in consultation with the FAA, the State aviation office, the U.S. Fish
and Wildlife Service and the owners and operators of the airport and the
disposal facility. The compliance decision should be made by the State
Solid Waste Office.
The initial step in the evaluation of first, second and third
priority facilities is to determine whether the bird populations of
the facility are greater than natural populations in the area, for
each species. If it is shown that the populations are less or
similar, then the facility -is in compliance with this criterion.
It is inadequate that this be determined through one field inspection, >
since birds may occur at the facility only during certain times of the
day, during inclement weather, or certain times of the year. This
should be shown through several field inspections and previous study if
available. If it is shown that birds are attracted to the disposal
facility, further analysis is necessary to determine if these birds
pose a hazard to aircraft.
For facilities assigned a low priority, the initial step in the
evaluation is to contact the airport to determine if there has been a
history of bird strikes. If there has not been, it nay bo assumed that
the facility complies with the criterion for the purpose of the Inventory.
If there is a history of bird strikes at the airport the evaluation
should proceed with the study of populations, as previously discussed.
It is now known that:
the disposal facility is located within the specified distances
of a public-use airport;
the disposal facility receives putrescible waste;
2(c)-10
-------
birds are attracted to the disposal facility (i.e., bird
populations on-site are greater than naturally occur in
the area);
a bird hazard exists at the airport.
It remains to be determined whether the disposal facility
contributes to the bird hazard at the airport or whether the bird
hazard is solely due to other attractants, such as the airport itself
or other off-site features.
The most reliable method to determine if the facility does or does
not contribute to the bird hazard at the airport is to establish the
flight patterns of the species of concern. Methods to establish bird
flight patterns include visual observation; radar tracings of birds
actively flying from the disposal facility to the airport area; marking
birds at the disposal facility and recapturing or seeing them at the
airport area; or examination of stomach contents of dead birds in the
airport area to evidence previous feeding at the disposal facility. If
birds attracted by the disposal facility do indeed fly across the landing
or departure pattern for aircraft within the specified distances of the
airport, the facility is not in compliance with this Criterion.
If the flight patterns of the birds cannot be clearly established,
a comparison should be made of the birds at the airport which are
posing the hazard, with the birds at the disposal facility and with the
birds at other surrounding areas in the vicinity of the airport. The
characteristics and occurrence of the bird population at the airport
may be similar enough to birds in surrounding areas to indicate that
the birds are entering the airport from these surrounding areas.
-------
Tb make such a comparison, all areas in the vicinity of the airport,
as well as any airport features capable of attracting birds, should be
identified. Such areas are:
crop land
water - especially standing bodies of water and wetlands
vegetation, especially forests
open areas - fields (especially recently disturbed),
grasses, golf courses
animal feeding operations
solid waste handling at the airport
The bird population in these areas should be identified and
characterized. The characteristics of the bird population at the
airport, the disposal facility, and these other surrounding areas
should be compared. Characteristics of bird population to be compared
are:
species of birds - What species poses the hazard at the airport?
Does the disposal facility/ or other surrounding areas support
this species?
number of birds - What is the approximate number of birds at
the airport? Is it a flock, or single birds? Does the disposal
facility or surrounding areas support this number of birds?
daily occurrence - What part of the day do the birds usually
occur at the airport? Morning, evening, or all day? Does this
bear any relationship to the daily occurrence of birds at the
disposal facility or other surrounding areas?
seasonal occurrence - What are the seasonal patterns of birds
at the airport? Are birds most numerous during spring and autumn
migration or during winter due to heat and food availability at
the disposal facility or other surrounding areas?
2(c)-12
-------
weather conditions - Are birds seeking shelter fran inclement
weather at the airport? Disposal facility? Surrounding areas?
After a comparison of the birds at the airport, the disposal facility
and other surrounding areas, evidence should be weighed to determine
the attractant of the birds posing the hazard.
If the bird population at the airport appears to be more clearly
related to the bird population of the other surrounding areas than to
the bird population of the disposal facility, then the other surrounding
areas pose the bird hazard and the disposal facility is in compliance
with this criterion.
If the bird population at the airport appears to be more closely
related to the bird population at the disposal facility than to the bird
population of the other surrounding areas, the disposal facility poses
the bird hazard and the disposal facility is not in compliance with this
criterion.
2 (c) -13
-------
Appendix 2(c)-1
AIRPORTS HAVING
SOLID WASTE RELATED
BIRD HAZARD
2 (c) -14
-------
AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS
ALASKAN REGION
ASSOCIATED CITY
Kodiak, Alaska
Homer, Alaska
Anchorage, Alaska
AIRPORT NAME
Kodiak State
Homer
Merrill Field
NORTHWEST REGION
Renton, Washington
Hoquiam, Washington
Bremerton, Washington
Renton Municipal
Bowerman
Kitsap County
PACIFIC REGION
None
WESTERN REGION
San Francisco, California
Oakland, California
Stockton, California
Santa Barbara, California
Concord, California
San Francisco International
Metropolitan Oakland
Stockton Metropolitan
Santa Barbara Municipal
Buchanan Field
SOUTHWEST REGION
None
GREAT LAKES REGION
Benton Harbor, Michigan
Escanaba, Michigan
Lansing, Michigan
IXiluth, Minnesota
International Falls, Minnesota
Ross Field
Delta County
Capital City
Duluth International
Falls International
2(c)-15
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AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS (continued)
SOUTHERN REGION
ASSOCIATED CITY AIRPORT NAME
Atlanta, Georgia Hartsfield Atlanta International
Augusta, Georgia Bush Field
CENTRAL REGION
Omaha, Nebraska Eppley Airfield
ROCKY MOUNTAIN REGION
Salt Lake City, Utah Sa]_t j^g city international
Ogden, Utah Ogden Municipal
NEW ENGLAND REGION
None
EASTERN REGION
Newark, New Jersey Newark International
Trenton, New Jersey Mercer County
Atlantic City, New Jersey Atlantic City Municipal
Atlantic City, New Jersey NAPEC/Atlantic city
New York, New York John F> Kennedy International
New York, New York ^ Guardia
Disposal facilities may not necessarily be within the specified
distances of these airports
Listing subject to updating by PAA
2(c)-16
-------
Appendix 2(c)-2
AIKPORTS HAVING A
KNOWN BIRD HAZARD
2(c)-17
-------
AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS
ALASKAN REGICN
ASSOCIATED CITY
None
AIRPORT NAME
NORTHWEST REGION
Seattle, Washington
Moses Lake, Washington
Lewiston, Idaho
Pocatello, Idaho
Salem, Oregon
Msdford, Oregon
Astoria, Oregon
Idaho Falls, Idaho
Boeing Field/King County
Grant Count/
Lewiston-Nez Perce County
Pocatello Municipal
McNary Field
Ufedford-Jackson County
Clatsop County
Fanning Field
PACIFIC REGICN
Pago Pago, Samoa
Honolulu, Hawaii
Kahului, Hawaii
Lihue, Hawaii
Lanai City, Hawaii
Pago Pago International
Honolulu International
Kahului, International
Lihue International
Lanai
WESTERN REGION
Los Angeles, California
Sacramento, California
Sacramento, California
Santa Ana, California
Napa, California
San Diego, California
Fresno, California
Burbank, California
Santa Monica, California
Livermore, California
Palo Alto,California
Los Angeles International
Sacramento Metropolitan
Sacramento Executive
John Wayne/Orange County
Napa County
San Diego International
Fresno Air Terminal
Hollywood Burbank
Santa Monica Municipal
Liverraore
Palo Alto
2 (c) -18
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AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS (continued)
ASSOCIATED CITY
AIRPORT NAME
WESTERN REGION (continued)
Long Beach, California
Santa Maria, California
Torrance, California
Compton, California
Phoenix, Arizona
Reno, Nevada
Long Beach/Daugherty Field
Santa Maria Public
Torrance Municipal
Compton Airport
Phoenix-Sky Harbor
Reno International
SOUTHWEST REGION
Tulsa, Oklahoma
Lawton, Oklahoma
New Orleans, Louisiana
New Orleans, Louisiana
Monroe, Louisiana
Tulsa International
Lawton Municipal
Lakefront International
New Orleans International
Monroe Regional
GREAT LAKES REGION
South Bend, Indiana
Detroit, Michigan
Detroit, Michigan
Detroit, Michigan
Grand Rapids, Michigan
Kalamazoo, Michigan
Muskegon, Michigan
Chicago, Illinois
Chicago, Illinois
Moline, Illinois
Alexandria, Minnesota
St. Paul, Minnesota
Appleton, Wisconsin
Green Bay, Wisconsin
La Crosse, Wisconsin
Manitowoc, Wisconsin
Ililwaukee, Wisconsin
Oshkosh, Wisconsin
Michiana Regional
Detroit City
Detroit Metropolitan
Willow Run
Kent County International
Kalamazoo Municipal
Muskegon County
Merrill C. Meigs
Chicago Midway
Quad City
Chandler Field
Holman Field
Outagamie County
Austin-Straubel Field
La Crosse Municipal
Manitowoc County
General Mitchell Field
Wittman Field
2(c) -19
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AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS (continued)
ASSOCIATED CITY
AIRPORT NAME
SOUTHERN REGION
Tampa, Florida
Sarasota/Bradenton, Florida
Ft. Myers, Florida
Miami, Florida
Orlando, Florida
St. Petersburg/Clearwater, Florida
Melbourne, Florida
Marathon, Florida
Jacksonville, Florida
Key West, Florida
Lake Okeechobee
Brunswick, Georgia
Birmingham, Alabama
Muscle Shoals, Alabama
Anniston, Alabama
Louisville, Kentucky
Lexington, Kentucky
Wilmington, North Carolina
Memphis, Tennessee
Nashvilie, Tennessee
Christiansted, Virgin Islands
San Juan, Puerto Rico
Tampa International
Sarasota-Bradenton
Page Field
Miami International
Orlando International
St. Petersburg/Clearwater Int'l
Melbourne Regional
Marathon Flight Strip
Jacksonville International
Key West International
Lake Okeechobee Municipal
Glynco Jetport
Birmingham Municipal
Muscle Shoals
Anniston - Calhoun County
Standford Field
Blue Grass
New Hanover County
Memphis International
Nashville Metropolitan
Alexander Hamilton
Puerto Rico International
CENTRAL REGION
Wichita, Kansas
Sioux City, Iowa
Columbia, Missouri
St. Louis, Missouri
Kaiser, Missouri
Cape Girardeau, Missouri
Wichita Mid-Continent
Mason City Municipal
Columbia Regional
Lambert-St. Louis International
Lee C. Fine Memorial
Cape Girardeau Municipal
2(c)-20
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AIRPORTS WITH BIRD HAZARDS (continued)
ASSOCIATED CITY
AIRPORT NAME
ROCKY MOUNTAIN REGION
Bismarck, North Dakota
Watertown, South Dakota
Helena, Montana
Cody, Wyoming
Bismarck Municipal
Watertown Municipal
Helena
Cody Municipal
NEW ENGLAND REGION
Willimantic, Connecticut
New Haven, Connecticut
Boston, Massachusetts
Hyannis, Massachusetts
Willimantic - Windom
Tweed - New Haven
General Edward Lawrence Logan
Barnstable Municipal
EASTERN REGION
Buffalo, New York
Ithaca, New York
Islip, New York
Teterboro, New Jersey
Farmingdale, New York
Poughkeepsie, New York
Harrisburg, Pennsylvania
Greater Buffalo International
Tompkins County
Islip McArthur
Teterboro
Republic Airport
Dutchess County
Capital City
Disposal facilities may not necessarily be within the
specified distances of these airports
Listing subject to updating by FAA
2(c)-21
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Chapter 2(c)
SAFETY -
BIRD HAZARDS TO AIRCRAFT
Criterion Compliance Decision
D Complies
DDoes Not Comply
1. Is the disposal facility within the specified distances of a public-use
airport?
[H YES (Continue to 2)
D10,000 feet from any airport runway used by turbojet aircraft
D5,000 feet from any airport runway used by piston--type aircraft
DNO (COMPLIES)
2. Does the facility receive putrescible waste?
DYES (Continue to 3)
D Food waste
DSewage sludge, septic tank pumpings
DAnimal manures
DAnimal carcasses
mothers
DNO (COMPLIES)
3. Does the facility pose a bird hazard to aircraft?
D YES (Does not comply)
D Bird populations of the facility are greater than natural
populations in the area
DFacility attracts birds
DThere is a bird hazard at the airport from areas outside the
airport
QFlight patterns of the birds show that birds do fly from the
disposal facility to the airport area
DNO (COMPLIES)
D Bird populations of the facility are less than or equal to
the natural populations in the area
DFacility does not attract birds
DBird attraction is due to the airport facility
DFlight patterns of birds show that they do not fly from the
disposal facility to the airport
2(c)-22
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CHAPTER 2(d)
SAFETY - ACCESS
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
(d) Access. A facility or practice shall
not allow uncontrolled public access so
as to expose the public to potential
health and safety hazards at the
disposal site.
2.0 Inventory Procedure
Injury to persons may result fron the materials and activities
associated with solid waste disposal facilities. The sources of
hazards include:
(a) operation of heavy equipment and haul vehicles,
(b) exposure to waste including sharp objects, pathogens, and
toxic, explosive, or flammable materials,
(c) accidental or intentional fires, and
(d) excavations and earth-moving activities.
For purposes of the Inventory the public is defined as "authorized
persons" and "unauthorized persons." Authorized persons are those with
permission to be on or within the facility.
1b be in compliance with this Criterion, a facility must provide
adequate measures for controlling entry of the public to the facility
and, where appropriate, control authorized persons within the facility
so as to protect them from potential health and safety hazards. The
compliance decision flow chart is shown in Figure 2(d)-l.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Is access of unauthorized persons into the facility controlled?
Facility access must be controlled to prevent unauthorized
persons from entering the facility. This is accomplished through:
2 (d) -1
-------
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2(d)-2
-------
(1) artificial (man-made) control, and/or
(2) natural controls.
Compliance with this Criterion is based on a facility-specific
determination of the facility's physical constraints to access by
unauthorized persons.
The sources of information needed to make the determinations are:
(1) review of the past history of the facility through:
(a) previous inspections, records and permit conditions
indicating controlled access into the facility
(b) records of accidents at the facility due to a lack of
controlled access
(2) field inspection.
The assessment should be based on the following:
(1) Artificial controls
(a) Gates - Access at all facilities should be limited to
entrances that have gates which can be locked when the site
is unsupervised. Depending on the natural controls present
at the facility, entrance gates may be all that are needed
to control unauthorized entry.
(b) Fences - Fencing requirements are dependent on the natural
controls and remoteness of the facility. At some facilities
it is necessary to construct fences at selected points along
the boundary or in seme cases along the circumference of the
facility to keep out unauthorized persons. This is especially
true if the facility is located in an urban area associated
with high usage and close proximity to populated areas.
The type of fencing needed (chain link, farm type, etc.) is
also facility specific according to the needs of the facility.
(2) Natural Controls - The topography and vegetation on or near
the facility may be adequate to control access. Examples of natural
controls existing or developed at a facility are trees, hedges,
berms, ditches, cliffs, ravines or embankments associated with
railroads and roadways. At some remote facilities access control
2 (d) -3
-------
(other than locked gates) may be satisfied by the distance of the
facility from a major roadway or by its location within a larger
land area where the public is restricted.
3.2 Are authorized persons controlled within the facility so as to
not expose them to potential health and safety hazards?
Methods of control of authorized persons within the facility
include the following:
unloading area supervision
lighting
information and directional signs '
prohibition of scavenging
control of salvaging
trafficable roadways
alternate discharge point
internal fencing or barriers (berms, ditches, etc.)
The' sources of infornlatiori needed to' make this determincLtion are:
(1) Review of the past history of the facility through:
(a) Previous inspections, records and permit conditions
indicating control methods within the facility
(b) Records of accidents at the facility due to inadequate
control
(2) Field inspection.
The assessment should be based on the following:
(1) Supervision of the unloading area(s) should occur in a
manner which clearly directs users as to where and where not
to discharge wastes. This supervision must take place whenever
the landfill gates are unlocked.
(2) For those facilities operating after dark, lighting must be
provided at the unloading area.
(3) Information and directional signs may be necessary. A facility
may need to have such information as hours of operation, authorized
users, waste types accepted or excluded, where specific waste types
or vehicle types are to be unloaded, appropriate warning signs,
2(d)-4
-------
owner or operator emergency telephone nuitbers, and facility rules
posted at the entrance and within the facility. Directional signs
may be necessary within the facility to direct drivers to the
appropriate unloading area, assist in traffic control and to regulate
speed within the facility.
(4) Scavenging (the uncontrolled removal of materials at a
disposal facility) should not be allowed.
(5) Salvaging is the controlled removal and handling of waste
material for utilization. Examples of salvagable material are
metals, glass, paper, bricks and bulky items. Compliance in this
case must focus on the salvaging procedures. Generally, the
material to be salvaged should not be unloaded at the working face
but should be unloaded at a separate salvage area. Materials
should be removed from the facility daily or properly stored so
they do not create a hazard.
(6) Trafficable Roadways - Internal access roads should be main-
tained so that traffic will flow smoothly and will not be interrupted
by ordinary inclement weather.
(7) Provisions for Alternate Discharge Point - Bulk containers or
roll-off units may be provided at an unloading area at a separate
location within the facility for small vehicles to dispose of waste.
This area should be located away from the working face to reduce
the potential for accidents.
(8) Internal fencing or barriers (berms, ditches, etc.) may be
used to control the movement of vehicles or persons within the
facility.
2 (d) -5
-------
Chapter 2(d)
SAFETY - ACCESS
Criterion Compliance Decision
Q Complies
Not Comply
1. Is access of unauthorized persons into the facility controlled?
n YES (COMPLIES)
Natural controls:
D Trees and hedges
D Berms and ditches
D Cliffs and ravines
D Remoteness
Artificial controls:
D Gates
G Fences
QNO (Continue to 2)
2. Are authorized persons controlled within the facility so as to not expose
them to potential health and safety hazards?
D YES (COMPLIES)
D Supervision of the unloading area
DAdequate lighting
DPosting information and direction signs
D Prohibition of scavenging
D Control of salvaging
D Trafficable roadways
D Alternate discharge point
QNO (Does not comply)
2(d)-6
-------
-------
CHAPTER 3 '
SURFACE WATER
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
§257.3-3 Surface Water.
la) A facility or practice shall not
cause a discharge of pollutants into
waters of the United States that is in
violation of the requirements of the
National Pollutant Discharge
Elimination System (NPDES) under
Section 402 of the Clean Water Act, as
amended.
(b) A facility or practice shall not
cause a discharge of dredged material or
fill material to waters of the United
States that is in violation of the
requirements under Section 404 of the
Clean Water Act, as amended.
(c) A facility or practice shall not
cause non-point source pollution of
waters of the United States that violates
applicable legal requirements
implementing an areawide or Statewide
water quality management plan that has
been approved by the Administrator
under Section 208 of the Clean Water
Act, as amended.
(d) Definitions of the terms "Discharge
of dredged material", "Point source",
"Pollutant", "Waters of the United
States", and "Wetlands" can be found in
the Clean Water Act, as amended, 33
U.S.C. 1251 et seq., and implementing
regulation*, specifically 33 CFR Part 323
(42 FR 37122, July 19,1977).
2.0 Inventory Procedure
The Inventory classification procedure involves determ:ning if a
facility complies with the requirements of 3 Sections of the Clean Water
Act; Section 402, Section 404, and any applicable legal requirements
developed under Section 208. The procedure is to determine whether any
of these requirements are applicable to the facility, and if so, whether
the facility complies. The decision procedure flow chart is shown in
Figure 3-1.
A disposal facility operating within waters of the United States,
discharging pollutants into waters of the United States, or placing
fill material with the primary purpose of waste disposal into waters
of the United States will require a Section 402 (NPDES) permit.
A disposal facility discharging dredged or fill material into
waters of the United States will require a Section 404 permit.
Applicable discharges include, but are not limited to, the disposal
of dredged material and the placement of dikes or levees (e.g. fill
material) to restrain waste from entering surrounding waters. Facilities
3-1
-------
1
IS THERE A POINT-SOURCE
DISCHARGE OF POLLUTANTS
INTO WATERS OF THE U.S.?
YES
DOES THE FACILITY VIOLATE
THE NPDES (402) REQUIREMENTS?
YES
ODES NOT COMPLY
NO
NO
3
IS THERE A DISCHARGE OF
'DREDGED MATEHIAk OR
FILL MATERIAL TO WATERS
OF THE U.S.?
YES
*
NO
5
IS THERE A NON-POINT
SOURCE DISCHARGE FROM
THE FACILITY?
YES
NO
r
COMPLIES
DOES THE FACILITY VIOLATE
THE SECTION 404 REQUIREMENTS?
YES
_ .J
DOES NOT COMPLY
NO
DOES THE FACILITY CAUSE
NON-POINT SOURCE
POLLUTION OF WATERS OF
THE U.S. THAT VIOLATES
THE APPLICABLE LEGAL
REQUIREMENTS IMPLEMENTING
AN AREAWIOE OR STATE-
WIDE WATER QUALITY
MANAGEMENT PLAN THAT
HAS BEEN DEVELOPED AND
APPROVED BY THE
ADMINISTRATOR UNDER
SECTION 208 OF THE CLEAN
WATER ACT, AS AMENDED?
YES
DOES NOT CDMPLY
NO
F
COMPLIES
NOTE: DASHED LINE INDICATES THE NEED TO CONTINUE TO THE NEXT FLOW CHART QUESTION
FIGURE 3-1 FLOWCHART-SURFACE WATER
11/79
3-2
-------
may require both a 402 and a 404 permit.
State and area wide 208 water quality management plans address
non-point source pollution of surface waters. A facility located in
an area covered by a 208 plan which is implemented by legal requirements
for contol of non-point source pollution from solid waste disposal
facilities must comply with such requirements.
2.1 Definitions
The following definitions are from the regulations for the 402
(NPDES) permit program (40 CFR 122) .
(a) "Discharge of Pollutant(s)" includes (in reference to waters
of the United States): any addition of any pollutant or combination
of pollutants to navigable waters from any point source, or. . .
surface runoff which is collected or channelled by man; discharges
through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances owned by a State,
municipality or other party which do not lead to treatment systems;
and discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances, leading
into treatment systems owned in whole or in part by a third party
other than a State or a municipality.
(b) "Point source" means any discernible, confined and discrete
conveyance, including but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel,
tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock,
concentrated animal feeding operations, vessel or other floating
craft, from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term
does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
(c) "Pollutant" means dredged spoil, solid waste, incinerator
residue, filter backwash, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions,
chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials, heat,
wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt, and
industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into
water.
(d) "Waters of the United States." This term includes:
(1) All waters which are currently used, were used in the
past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign
3-3
-------
commerce, including all waters which are subject to the ebb
and flow of the tide;
(2) Interstate waters, including interstate wetlcinds;
(3) All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers,
streams (including intermittent streams), mudflats, sand-
flats and wetlands, the use, degradation or destruction of
which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign
commerce including any such waters:
which are or could be used by interstate or foreign
travelers for recreational or other purposes;
from which fish or shellfish are or could be taken
and sold in interstate or foreign commerce;
which are used or could be used for industrial
purposes by industries in interstate commerce;
(4) All impoundments of waters otherwise defined as
navigable waters under this paragraph;
(5) Tributaries of waters identified in paragraphs (l)-(4)
of this section, including adjacent wetlands; and
(6) Wetlands adjacent to waters identified in paragraphs
(l)-(5) of this section ("Wetlands" means those areas that
are inundated or saturated by surface or ground water at a
frequency and duration sufficient to support, and that under
normal circumstances do support, a prevalence of vegetation
typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions.
Wetlands generally include playa lakes, swamps, marshes,
bogs, and similar areas such as sloughs, prairie potholes,
wet meadows, prairie river overflows, mudflats, and natural
ponds); provided that waste treatment systems (other than
cooling ponds meeting the criteria of this paragraph) are
not waters of the United States.
The following definitions are from the regulations for the 404
(dredge and fill) permit program (33 CFR 323).
(e) "Discharge of dredged material" means any addition of dredged
material into the waters of the United States. The term includes,
3-4
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without limitation, the addition of dredged material to a specified
disposal site located in waters of the United States and the runoff
or overflow from a contained land or water disposal area. Discharges
of pollutants into waters of the United States resulting from the
onshore subsequent processing of dredged material that is extracted
for any coirmercial use (other than fill) are not included within
this term and are subject to Section 402 of the Federal Water
Pollution Control Act even though the extraction and deposit of
such material may require a permit from the Corps of Engineers.
The term does not include plowing, cultivating, seeding and
harvesting for the production of food, fiber, and forest products.
(f) "Discharge of fill material" means the addition of fill
material into waters of the United States. The term generally
includes, without limitation, the following activities: placement
of fill that is necessary to the construction of any structure in
a water of the United States, the building of any structure or
impoundment requiring rock, sand, dirt, or other material for its
construction; site-development fills for recreational, industrial
commercial, residential, and other uses; causeways or road fills;
dams and dikes; artificial islands; property protection and/or
reclamation devices such as riprap, groins, seawalls, breakwaters,
and revetments; beach nourishment; levees; fill for structures such
as sewage treatment facilities, intake and outfall pipes associated
with power plants and subaqueous utility lines; and artificial
reefs. The term does not include plowing, cultivating, seeding
and harvesting for the production of food, fiber, and forest
products.
(g) "Dredged material" means material that is excavated or dredged
from waters of the United States.
(h) "Fill material" means any material used for the primary purpose
of replacing an aquatic area with dry land or of changing the bottom
elevation of a waterbody. The term does not include any pollutant
discharged into the water primarily to dispose of waste, as that
activity is regulated under Section 402 of the Federal Water
Pollution Control Act (Clean Water Act) Amendments of 1972.
3-5
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.1.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
This manual does not recommend ranking facilities for the evaluation
of the Surface Water Criterion. The pollution potential is significant,
but little effort has been concentrated thus far on using the mechanisms
of the Clean Water Act to address the problem. Although a large number
of facilities are located in or adjacent to waters of the United States,
only a small percentage currently have 402 (NPDES) permits,, Also, many
208 plans either do not address non-point source pollution from solid
waste disposal facilities or, where such provisions are found, are not
implemented by legal requirements.
3.1 Is there a point source discharge of pollutants to the waters
of the United States?
A facility which causes a point source discharge of pollutants
to waters of the United States violates this Criterion unless it has
applied for or is operating in compliance with a 402 (NPDES) permit.
To determine whether there is a point source discharge of pollutants,
check the facility location, design and operational history, conduct
a field inspection, or check with the appropriate 402 (NPDES) permit
program to see whether the facility requires a permit (e.g. has a
point source discharge). The following types of discharges are
considered as point sources and will require evaluation as to whether
they violate 402 (NPDES) requirements (Question 3.2).
(a) Landfills - point source discharge of pollutants include:
A discharge from a leachate collection system into waters
of the United States, including leachate from discrete
channels or fissures.
A discharge from an on-site leachate treatment system
directly into waters of the United States. Leachate
that is conveyed to off-site treatment facilities (e.g.
sewage treatment plants) is not considered as a point
source discharge from the facility.
3-6
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A direct discharge of solid waste into waters of the United
States where the primary purpose is for disposal rather
than filling.
A discharge of surface runoff which is collected or
channelled by man.
In general, where there is a discharge of solid waste into the
waters of the United States (diked or not), the primary purpose may be
assumed to be disposal rather than filling unless clear evidence to
the contrary is available. This evidence might include zoning changes
or the purchase of waste for fill. When the discharge is fill material,
the primary purpose may be assumed to be filling, rather than disposal,
and there is not a point source discharge requirement.
(b) Surface Impoundments - point source discharge of pollutants
includes:
location in waters of the United States.
clearly delineated outflows to waters of the United
States such as discharges from pipes, outfalls, spillway
structures and channels.
(c) Landspreading Operations - point source discharge of pollutants
includes:
discharge to waters of the United States from any outfall,
pipe, or clearly delineated channel that drains a land-
spreading area where the waste is not incorporated into
the soil as defined in Chapter 7.
landspreading operations located in waters of the United
States where the waste is not applied for the purpose
of enhancement of vegetative growth.
If there is a point source discharge, a facility must be evaluated
against the 402 (NPDES) requirements. If there is no point source
discharge, the facility complies with this part of the Criterion.
3.2 Does the facility violate the 402 (NPDES) requirements?
If a facility has a point source discharge, and is not operating
in compliance with or has not applied for a 402 (NPDES) permit, then it
3-7
-------
does not comply with this part of the Criterion. If a facility has
a 402 permit but is in violation of that permit, it does not comply
with this part of the Criterion.
The above determinations can be made in the office by contacting
the State NPDES program (if the State has authority over the program)
or the Regional Office of the Federal EPA.
3.3 Is there a discharge of dredged material or fill material to
waters of the United States?
A 404 (dredge and fill) permit is required for the placement of
any material for the purposes of fill into waters of the United States,
as well as the discharge of dredged material for the purposes of,
disposal or fill. In general, there is a discharge of dredged or fill
material to waters of the United States when:
the primary purpose of the facility is for filling and the
filling is conducted within the waters of the United States.
The primary purpose of the facility is for disposal and there is
a dike, levee or other containment structure constructed within
the waters of the United States to prepare an area to receive
waste material. (In this case, the dike, levee or other
containment structure constitute fill material.)
The determination of whether this discharge is to the waters of
the United States is obvious in many cases. Permit information or field
inspection can be used to determine the location of the filling or diking
with respect to any waters of the United States. There will be
circumstances where the determination will not be obvious, particularly
in areas that are not inundated at all times of the year. Examples
might be:
some wetlands
mudflats and sandflats
intermittent freshwater streams (refer to the Floodplains
Chapter, for guidance on the minimum size that must be considered
based on the "headwaters" of the stream).
3-8
-------
In these instances guidance as to whether the area is "waters of
the United States" or as to where the boundaries of the area are might
be obtained through:
District office of the Corps of Engineers (see Figure 3-2)
Wetland maps, including State, local and National Wetland
Inventory maps
Maps resulting from the Coastal Management Zone Act
United States Forest Service
United States Geological Survey
Soil Conservation Service
Examination of the prevalent vegetation near the solid waste
boundary for vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated
soil conditions (hydrophytes).
Title 33 - Navigation and Navigable Waters, Regulatory Programs
of the Crops of Engineers, FR 42(138):37122-37164
Wherever it is determined that there is a discharge of dredged or
fill material to waters of the United States, a 404 permit is required.
If no permit is required, proceed to Section 3.5 for the non-point source
determination.
3.4 Does the facility violate the Section 404 requirements?
If a facility discharges dredged or fill material into waters of
the United States and is not in complaince with or has not applied for
a 404 (dredge and fill) permit, then it does not comply with this part
of the Criterion.
The above determination can be made from in-house permit records,
by contacting the District Office of the Corps of Engineers, or the
owner or operator of the facility.
It should be noted that the Corps of Engineers issues 3 types of
404 permits:
Individual, issued through district office
General (200 existing), issued through district office
3-9
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3-10
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Nationwide permits or exemptions. Information on these can
be obtained from the District Engineer's Office or by
consulting FR 42(138); Title 33, Regulatory Programs of
the Corps of Engineers.
As a result, some facilities or discharges of dredged or fill
material might not have an individual permit, but might comply under
a general or nationwide permit.
3.5 Is there a non-point source discharge from the facility?
Surface impoundments usually do not have non-point source
discharges unless there is leakage, frequent spillage or overtopping.
Some landspreading facilities and landfills might not have non-point
source discharges where runoff and other water are totally contained
within the site and evaporated or discharged as a point source.
These facilities may be assumed to comply with any non-point source
requirements. It is assumed that all other facilities have a non-point
source discharge.
3.6 Does the facility cause non-point source polluting of the waters
of the United States jhat violates applicable legalrequirements
implementing an areawide or Statewide water quality management
plan that has been developed and approved by the Administrator
under Section 208 of the Clean Water Act, as amended?
This assessment should begin by determining if the facility is
located in an area with an approved 208 plan (see Table 3-1). This
can be done by contacting the State office that is in charge of preparing
and implementing the 208 plan. If a facility is not located in an area
with an approved 208 plan, the facility is in compliance with this
part of the Surface Water Criterion.
If a facility is located in an area with an approved 208 plan,
obtain a copy of the 208 plan and the applicable legal requirements
implementing the 208 plan.
Applicable requirements under 208 are normally control methods,
measures or practices to prevent or reduce water pollution, referred
3-11
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to as Best Management Practices. These might include treatment
requirements, operating and maintenance procedures, schedules of
activities, prohibitions of activities, and other management practices
to control plant site runoff, spillage, leaks, sludge or waste
disposal or drainage from raw material storage.
Determine by office review if any requirements have been placed
on the solid waste disposal facility. Field inspection will be
necessary to determine if these requirements have or have not been
violated. If the facility does not meet its 208 requirements,
then it does not comply with this part of the Criterion.
If 208 requirements have not been placed on the solid waste
disposal facility, the facility is in compliance with the Surface
Water Criterion.
3-15
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Chapter 3
SURFACE WATER
Criterion Compliance Decision
djCcmplies
CD Does Not Comply
1. Is there a point source discharge of pollutants to waters of the
United States?
DYES (Continue to 2)
D Facility has a Section 402 (NPDES) permit
D Landfill with a discharge frcm a leachate collection system
D Landfill with a discharge fran an on-site leachate treatment
system
D Landfill with a direct discharge of solid waste into waters
of the U.S.
D Surface impoundment with a discharge frcm a pipe or outfall
D Surface inpoundment with a discharge from an erodei channel
D Surface impoundment with a discharge from a spillway structure
DSurface impoundment located in waters of the U.S.
DLandspreading operations with a discharge frcm an outfall
pipe, or channel that drains the landspreading area where
the waste is not incorporated into the soil
DLandspreading operations located in waters of the U.S. where
waste is not applied for enhancement of vegetative growth
QNO (Go to 2)
2. Does the facility violate requirements for NPDES permits established
pursuant to Section 402 of the Clean Water Act?
D YES (Does not comply - continue to 3)
D Facility has a 402 permit, but is in violation of the permit
D Facility has not applied for a 402 permit
QNO (Continue to 3)
D Facility operates according to 402 permit requirements
D Facility has applied for a 402 permit
3. Is there a discharge of dredged material or fill material to waters of
the United States?
(Continue to 4)
(GO to 5)
3-16
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Chapter 3
SURFACE WATER
(Continued)
4. Does the facility violate requirements established pursuant to
Section 404 of the Clean Water Act?
O Y55 (Does not comply - continue to 5)
D 404 permit, but is in violation of that permit
D Facility has not applied for a 404 permit
GNO (Continue to 5)
D Facility operates in compliance with its 404 permit
D Facility has applied for a 404 permit
5. Is there a non-point source discharge from the facility?
CH Y^S (Does not comply - continue to 6)
DSurface impouncknent' with spillover, overtopping, or leakage
mother _
QNO (Continue to 6)
DLandfill or landspreading facility that totally contains
runoff or other water
D Other _
Does the facility cause non-point source polluting of the waters of the
U.S. that violates applicable legal requirements implementing an
areawide or Statewide water quality management plan that has been
developed and approved by the Administrator under Section 208 of the
Clean Water Act, as amended?
QYES (COMPLIES)
D Facility not in an area with an approved 208 plan
D Facility in an area with an approved 208 plan and complies
with all applicable requirements
DNo 208 requirements have been placed on the facility
HjNO (Does not comply)
3-17
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CHAPTER 4
GROUND WATER
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
$257.3-4 Ground Water.
(a) A facility or practice shall not
contaminate an underground drinking
water source beyond the solid waste
boundary or beyond an alternative
boundary specified in accordance with
paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Only a State with a solid waste
management plan approved by the
Administrator pursuant to Section 4007
gf the Act may establish an alternative
boundary to be used in lieu of the solid
waste boundary. A State may specify
such a boundary only if it finds that
such a change would not result in
contamination of ground water which
may be needed or used for human
consumption. This finding shall be
based on analysis and consideration of
all of the following factors:
(I) The hydrogeological
characteristics of the facility and
surrounding land;
(2) The volume and physical and
chemical characteristics of the leachate;
(3) The quantity, quality, and
directions of flow of ground water;
(4) The proximity and withdrawal
rates of ground-water users;
(5) The availability of alternative
drinking water supplies;
(6) The existing quality of the ground
water including other sources of
contamination and their cumulative
impacts on the ground water; and
(7) Public health, safety, and welfare
effects.
(c) As used in this section:
(1) "Aquifer" means a geologic
formation, group of formations, or
portion of a formation capable of
yielding usable quantities of ground
water to wells or springs.
(2) "Contaminate" means introduce a
substance that would cause:
(i) The concentration of that
substance in the ground water to exceed
the maximum contaminant level
specified in Appendix I, or
(ii) An increase in the concentration of
that substance in the ground water
where the existing concentration of that
substance exceeds the maximum
contaminant level specified in Appendix
I.
(3) "Ground water" means water
below the land surface in the zone of
saturation.
(4) "Underground drinking water
source" means:
(i] An aquifer supplying drinking
water for human consumption, or
(ii) An aquifer in which the ground
water contains less than 10,000 mg/1
total dissolved solids.
(5) "Solid waste boundary" means the
outermost perimeter of the solid waste
(projected in the horizontal plane) as it
would exist at completion of the
disposal activity.
Appendix I
The maximum contaminant levels
promulgated herein are for use in determining
whether solid waste disposal activities
comply with the ground-water criteria
(J 257.3-4). Analytical methods for these
contaminants may be found in 40 CFR Part
141 which should be consulted in its entirety.
1. Maximum contaminant levels for
inorganic chemicals. The following are the
maximum levels of inorganic chemicals other
than fluoride:
Contaminant
Level (milligrams par
Mar)
ArMntc ... .
Banum . ...
Cadmium . ..
Chromium . ..
Laad
M«reury
Nitrate (as N)
Selenium
O.OS
1.
0.010
005
a os
0002
10.
001
005
4-1
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The maximum contaminant levels For
fluoride are:
Temperature'
degrees
Fahrenheit
Level
Degrees . (milligrams
Celsius per liter)
53 7 and below 12 and below
53 8 to 58 3 12 1 to 14.6
58 4 to 63 8 14 7 to 17 6
63910706 1771021.4
70 7 to 79 2 21 5 to 26 2
79 3 to 90.5 26 3 to 32.5
24
2.2
20
18
18
14
> Annual average ol the maximum daily air temperature.
2. Maximum contaminant levels for
organic chemicals. The following are the
maximum contaminant levels for organic
chemicals:
(a) Chlorinated hydrocarbons:
Endrm (1.2.3,4.10,10-Hexachloro-6,7-epoxy.
i,4,4a.5,6,7,8.Sa-octahydro-1,4-«ndo, «ftdo
5.8-dimethano naphthalene)
Undone (1.2.3,4,5,6-Hexachlorocycloriexane,
gamma taomer ..
MetnoxycNor (1.1,1-TncWoro-2,2-txs (p-mettv
oxyphenyl) ethane)
Toxaphene (C,JH,XVTechrncal chlorinated
camphan*. 67 to 69 percent chlorine)
(b) Chkxophenoxyr
2.4-0 (2.4-Dichlorophenoxy-acetic acid)
2.4.5-TP &lve» (2.4.5-
Tnchlorophenoxypropionic acid)
Level
(milligrams
per liter)
0.0002
0.004
P1
0.005
01
0.01
3. Maximum microbiological contaminant
levels. The maximum contaminant level for
coliform bacteria from any one well is as
follows:
(a) using the membrane filter technique:
(1) Four coliform bacteria per 100 milhliters
if one sample is taken, or
(2) Four coliform bacteria per 100 milliliters
in more than one sample of all the samples
analyzed in, one month.
(b) Using the five tube most probable
number procedure, (the fermentation tube
method) in accordance with the analytical
recommendations set forth in "Standard
Methods for Examination of Water and
Waste Water", American Public Health
Association, 13th Ed. pp. 662-«88, and using a
Standard sample, each portion being one fifth
of the sample:
(1) If the standard portion is 10 milliliters,
coliform in any five consecutive samples
from a well shall not be present in three or
more of the 25 portions, or
(2) If the standard portion is 100 milliliters,
coliform in any five consecutive samples
from a well shall not be present in five
portions in any of Five samples or in more
than fifteen of the 25 portions.
4. Maximum contaminant levels for
radium-226, radium-228, and gross alpha
particle radioactivity. The following are the
maximum contaminant levels for radium-226,
radium-228, and gross alpha particle
radioactivity:
(a) Combined radium-226 and radium-228
5 pCi/1;
(b) Gross alpha particle activity (including
radium-226 but excluding radon and
uranium)15 pCi/1.
Proposed Amendment
^.Maximum contaminant levels for other
than health effects.
The following are the maximum levels for
odor, taste and miscellaneous contaminants:
Contaminant
Chlonde
Color
Copper
Foaming agents
Iron ,....
Manganese
Odor
pH
SuHate
IDS
Zinc -
250 mg/l
15 Color units.
1 mg'l
05 mg/l
0 3 mg/l.
0 05 mg/l.
3 Threshold odor-No
8 5-8,5.
250 mg/l.
500 mg/l
Smg/l.
2.0 Inventory Procedure
Facility compliance (or non-compliance), for the purpose of the
Inventory, will be based on the results of monitoring for contamination,
except in those cases where ground water contains more than 10,000 mg/l
total dissolved solids and is not being used as a human drinking water
source. Since the time involved precludes immediate monitoring of all
facilities, the procedure includes the ranking of facilities according
to their contamination potential so that a monitoring priority can be
assigned. The process consists of:
(a) Elimination from further consideration (compliance) of
those facilities at which the ground water contains more than
4-2
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10,000 mg/1 TDS and is not being used as a human drinking water
source.
(b) Ranking of the remaining facilities based on their contamination
potential, considering the type of facility, hydrogeologic conditions,
and operating procedures.
(c) Determination of compliance based on monitoring to detect
actual contamination.
The compliance decision flow chart is presented in Figure 4-1.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Does ground water contain more than 10,000 mg/1 TDS and is it
not being used as a human drinking water source?
The ground water in question is that contained in the
shallowest geologic formation (aquifer) capable of yielding
usable quantities of ground water. The natural or background
concentration of TDS in the ground water may be determined from
existing ground water data and reports. Such reports should
cover an area that includes the facility and should give
average TDS concentrations for the ground water of concern.
Sources of information are:
USGS "Water Resources Investigations" reports for the area
State water, natural resources, or geologic survey reports
City or county health agency or water agency
Local drilling contractors' records
Records of drilling from site permit data.
If not available from the above sources, TDS concentrations may
be determined by testing the ground water. Standard sampling and
analysis procedures to be used may be found in the references listed
below. Samples should be drawn from the nearest existing well(s) f
if any, pumping from the ground water source of concern.
(1) Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,
13th Edition, American Public Health Association, 1971.
4-3
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(2) Manual of Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and
Wastes, Environmental Protection Agency, 1974. (EPA-625/6-
74-003)
(3) 1978 Annual Book of ASTM Standards, Part 23 (Water:
Atmospheric Analysis), ASTM, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania.
After making the determination, proceed as follows:
(1) If the ground water contains less than 10,000 mg/1 TDS,
continue to Section 3.2.
(2) If the ground water contains more than 10,000 mg/1 TDS
and is not being used as a human drinking water source, then
the facility complies with this Criterion.
If reports or sources of information indicate no usable quantities
of ground water present beneath the site, the facility complies with
this Criterion. If there are no data available and no wells exist,
continue to the next Section (3.2).
3.2 Rank Facilities According to their Contamination Potential
Facilities remaining after the elimination step must be monitored
for contamination. However, it is not possible to monitor all sites
at once; therefore, they will be ranked, and given a monitoring priority,
based on hydrogeologic conditions, operating procedures, and facility
type.
3.2.1 Sole Source Aquifers
Top priority for monitoring must be assigned to those facilities
located in recharge areas of sole source aquifers. The five sole
source aquifers designated to date by EPA are described in the following
issues of the Federal Register.
San Antonio, Texas area; FR 12-16-75
Spokane, Washington area; FR 2-9-78
Northern Guam; FR 4-26-78
Nassau and Suffolk County, New York; FR 6-21-78
Fresno, California; FR 9-10-79
4-5
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If the facility is located in a recharge area of one of these
aquifers, ranking is not necessary. The facility should be given
top priority for monitoring. Therefore, proceed to Section 3.3.
3.2.2 Ranking Procedure for Landfills
The ranking procedure for landfills not located in the recharge
zone of a sole source aquifer is based on aquifer and unsaturated zone
characteristics. The procedure was developed frcm documented landfill
case studies, discriminant analysis techniques, and the Surface
Impoundment Assessment technique, and is intended to assign the highest
priority to those facilities that have the highest contamination
potential with respect to ground water. The assigned monitoring
priority may be modified to a slight extent by consideration of
certain facility design or operational measures.
The ranking procedure requires the input of three (3) values that
describe the facility and its bydrogeologic setting (Figure 4-2). Methods
for estimating these values are as follows:
(1) Unsaturated zone thickness, meters. *
(a) For uniform soils, use the minimum distance frcm the
bottom of the landfill to the seasonal high level of the
ground water in an unconfined aquifer, or to the top of a
confined aquifer, whichever is shallowest. Perched aquifers
should also be considered if they are capable of supplying
usable quantities of water.
(b) Neglect the thickness of any highly-fractured rock layers.
(c) For layered series of soils or rock having similar
hydrologic properties (permeability), use the entire thickness.
(d) For equally thick layers of soils or rock having
dissimilar hydrologic properties (greater than 2 orders of
magnitude permeability difference), use only the thickness
of the least permeable layer. This layer must be continuous
under the entire facility and at least 1 meter thick. Other-
wise, utilize the thickness of the more permeable strata.
4-6
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(e) For layers of soils or rock with different thickness
and hydrologic properties, two options are available.
Either use the thickness of the layer with the least
permeability, or use the total combined thickness with a
weighted permeability (calculated in the next step, 3.2.2(2)) .
(2) Unsaturated zone permeability, cm/sec.
(a) For the soil or rock selected in (1) , select an
appropriate permeability from Table 4-1.
(b) If the permeability is available from permit or site
investigation data, utilize that value rather than Table 4-1.
(c) For multi- layered sequences requiring a weighted
permeability, use the following equation:
Ti + T2 + T3 -f . . . T
where T = thickness of each layer in meters
K = permeability of each layer in cm/sec
Note: if several layers with widely varied hydrologic
properties are present, the equation may produce an erroneously
high number for the low-permeability thickness. This should
be considered in such a situation.
(3) Saturated zone permeability, cm/sec.
(a) For a uniform soil or rock aquifer, select the expropriate
permeability from Table 4-1.
(b) For layered sequences of soil or rock, select the
appropriate permeability from Table 4-1 for the uppermost
saturated layer. If the upper layer is less permeable than
an underlying stratum and is less than 1 meter in thickness,
select the permeability from Table 4-1 for the underlying
layer.
4-8
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(c) If the permeability is available form other information
sources such as ground water reports or permit data,, utilize
that value rather than Table 4-1.
The facility's ranking (monitoring priority) is obtained from
Table 4-2 utilizing the above three values.
(4) Modification to the ranking.
After considering the above factors, the investigator may
choose to modify the monitoring priority slightly, after considering
certain site-specific characteristics. These characteristics are
described below. If a change in priority is deemed appropriate, the
following guidance should be observed:
(a) The modification may be used to move a facility from a
high monitoring priority to a medium monitoring priority,
or vice versa.
(b) The modifications should rarely be used to move a facility
from a medium monitoring priority to a low monitoring priority.
(5) Site specific characteristics.
(a) Initial quality and use of ground water.
Ground water beneath the facility may be used for human
consumption; used for other purposes; or not currently used.
Facilities overlying ground water that is currently used as
drinking water or that are close to drinking water wells
should have the highest monitoring priority.
(b) Infiltration.
The quantity of leachate generated is dependent on the
amount of infiltration through the waste mass. While it is
difficult to predict the relative impact on ground water
quality based on leachate quantity, in general it may be
assumed that facilities with greater infiltration should
have higher priorities. In dry areas of the United S-bates
with no recharge to ground water (no leachate is likely to
be produced due to infiltration) and where no water is added
from other sources, all but those landfills where the waste
4-10
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TABLE 4-2
MONITORING PRIORITY
Saturated Zone
Permeability
( cm/sec)
>io-"
10"" - 10~6
<10"6
Unsaturated Uhsaturated Zone
Zone Permeability
Thickness (m) (cm/sec)
<1 NA*
1-3 >10~"
10-" - io~6
10-*
10"" - 10"6
10 >10"2
ID'2 - 10~"
10""
10-" - io~6
<10"6
3-10 >10"2
io-2 - io~6
<10"6
>10 >10~'1
10~"
10"" - 10~5
3 >10"''
10"" - 10"6
<10~6
Monitoring
Priority
High
High
Medium
Low
High
Medium
Low
High
Medium
Low
High
High
Medium
Low
High
Medium
Low
I tedium
Low
High
Medium
Medium
Low
Medium
Low
Low
NA = Not applicable.
4-11
-------
is within 1 meter of ground water may be assigned a lower
priority. General estimates of infiltration can be obtained
using Figure 4-3. High net infiltration areas should be
assigned higher priority. Judgment should be used based on
local conditions, especially in the West. However, the
investigator is cautioned against greatly modifying the
monitoring priority with this factor, since even a small
amount of leachate can have an impact on ground water quality.
(c) Liners and leachate collection systems.
Facilities that have taken measures to predict and control
leachate migration through synthetic liners and/or leachate
collection usually constitute less of a contamination potential
than facilities without these measures. There might be concern
if the liners leak. Adjustment of priorities where liners
and collection systems are installed will have to be based on
the State experience with the particular facility.
(d) Karst terrain.
Karst areas are characterized by solution channels and
fractured limestone. Contaminants may reach the water table
relatively undiluted, and may travel quickly to other areas.
For this reason, facilities located in karst terrain should
have a slightly higher monitoring priority even in situations
where the water table is very deep.
(e) Floodplains.
Facilities located on a floodplain may be underlain by
somewhat permeable material and a shallow ground water system
that discharges into a stream or river. These facilitd.es
may be subject to reverse discharge into the facility or
extreme infiltration by flood waters, and any leachate
released into the ground water will discharge into the river
or stream. However, many of these facilities may have some
form of flood protection, or they may be designed to control
ground water discharge. The investigator must consider the
pros and cons of a facility located in a floodplain and
4-12
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4-14
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and determine if it should be assigned a higher or lower
monitoring priority.
(f) Operational quality.
If the facility is operating under a State permit, then the
investigator should determine if all the conditions relative to
ground water protection specified in the permit are being met in
the daily operation of the facility. If they are not, it may be
appropriate to assign higher monitoring priority. Also, other
operating practices that might enhance or reduce leachate
generation (such as accepting a large amount of liquid waste,
or not diverting runoff from the working area) should be
evaluated by the investigator.
(g) Waste type.
The case histories utilized in the discriminant analysis
included facilities that had handled "hazardous" waste and
failed to indicate any change in contamination potential
based on waste type, especially when the facility ranking
was based on the secondary standards that are now proposed
as an amendment to the Criteria. Therefore, there should be
no change in monitoring priority based on waste type except
for those facilities handling non-water soluble, non-decomposable
inert solids. Facilities handling such waste should be assigned
a lower priority.
3.2.3 Ranking of Surface Impoundments
The ranking procedure for surface impoundments is based on the
Surface Impoundment Assessment (SIA) System now in use by the EPA. The
procedure considers hydrogeologic characteristics and assigns a rating
for each of several parameters. The ratings are then entered into a
table and a monitoring priority is read from the table.
Following the instructions in A Manual for Evaluating Contamination
Potential of Surface Impoundments (SIA Manual) (EPA-570/9/78-003),
complete Steps 1 and 2 for rating the unsaturated and saturated zones
4-15
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at the facility location. Using these values, enter Table 4-3 to
find the monitoring priority. The data necessary for completing these
steps may already be available from another State Agency or the EPA
Office of Drinking Water, if the Surface Impoundment Assessment, is
being done or has been completed for the facility.
The monitoring priority may be modified to some extent by site
specific characteristics. Applicable ranking guidance contained in
Section 3.2.2 should be used to modify the ranking of surface
impoundments.
Liquid depth and base linings are of concern in estimating
infiltration. Waste type must be taken into account as explained
in Step 4 of the SIA Manual, rather than as discussed for landfills.
Table 4-3 is based on moderate (4-7) waste hazard potential ratings.
Therefore, facilities handling wastes with higher waste hazard
potentials (8-9) should be assigned a higher priority, and those with J
wastes with lesser ratings (1-3) should be assigned a lower priority.
3.2.4 Ranking of Landspreading Facilities
In general, most landspreading facilities do not constitute a
serious ground water pollution problem, although contamination has
been known to occur. These facilities should be ranked as follows:
(a) Those disposal facilities which handle sewage sludge only,
and which apply sludge at rates greater than the crop or
s/fKjetative nitrogen demand, will use Section 3.2.2 and Table 4-2
to determine a priority.
(b) Those facilities handling other wastes which contain
concentrations of any metal or organic constituent in excess of
those listed in the Criterion, Appendix I, should also use
section 3.2.2 and Table 4-2 to determine a priority.
(c) All other landspreading facilities should be given a low
priority for monitoring.
4-16
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TABLE 4-3
MONITORING PRIORITY - SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Saturated
Zone Rating
Unsaturated
Zone Rating
Monitoring
Priority
6A,6A, 3A
4C, 3C, 1C
2E, IE, OE
9A-9K, 6B, 7B, 8B, High
7C, 5D
6C, 4D, 3E, IP Medium
All others Low
9C-9K, 8B, 9A, 9B, High
7B, 7C
6C, 6B, 5D, 4D Medium
All others Low
9E-9K, 9A-9D, 8B, 7B,
6B High
7C, 5D Medium
All others Low
*Based on moderate waste hazard potential
4-17
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Guidance for Ranking of Landspreading Facilities Handling
Sewage Sludge
To determine whether the sludge nitrogen (N) is being applied
in excess of crop or vegetative demand, it is preferable to obtain
an analysis of NH^-N content, NOs-N content, and organic nitrogen
content of the sludge. If this is not available, use the following
average values:
Ibs available
where sludge is surface applied: ton of sludge
anaerobically digested 21
aerobically digested 13
other - calculate
where sludge is incorporated in the soil:
anaerobically digested 37
aerobically digested 17
other - calculate
Calculations:
Obtain the N requirement from Table 4-4. (A)
Calculate the available N in the sludge:
- where sludge is incorporated into the soi]:
percent NH^-N in sludge x 20 = Ib NEU-N/ton of sludge (B)
- where sludge is surface applied:
percent NH^-N in sludge x 10 = Ib NHit-N/ton of sludge (B)
percent organic N x 2 = Ib organic N/ton of sludge (C)
Determine any residual sludge N in the soil from Table 4-5.(E)
Calculate the sludge application rate necessary for crop
demand:
Rate (tons/acre) = (B) + (C)
If the sludge application rate is greater than the nitrogen demand
rate calculated in Step 4, then the facility should be assigned a
priority from section 3.2.2 and Table 4-2. Otherwise, a low monitoring
priority may be assumed.
4-18
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TABLE 4-4
ANNUM, NITROGEN (N) DEMANDS OF CROPS*
Crop
Corn
Corn silage
Soybeans
Grain sorghum
Wheat
Oats
Barley
Alfalfa
Orchard grass
Brome grass
Tall fescue
Bluegrass
Yield/acre
150 bu
32 tons
50 bu
4 tons
60 bu
100 bu
100 bu
8 tons
6 tons
5 tons
3.5 tons
3 tons
N (Ib/acre)
185
200
257t
250
125
150
150
450t
300
166
135
200
* Values reported are from reports by the Potash Institute of America and
are for the total above-ground portion of the plants. For the purpose
of estimating nutrient requirements for any particular crop year,
complete crop removal can be assumed.
t Legumes obtain N from synbiotic N2 fixation so fertilizer N is not
necessary. Where crop yields are less, reduce the nitrogen demand
by the ratio of the reduced yield to that listed in the table.
4-19
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Guidance for Facilities Handling Other Waste I
Landspreading facilities that dispose of other wastes will be
ranked using Table 4-2. "Other wastes" here means wastes or sludges
that contain concentrations of any metal or organic constituent in
excess of those listed in the Criterion, Appendix I. Facilities
that accept such waste usually receive an analysis of the sludge from
which the metals and organics content may be determined. If no such
analysis is available, the investigator must obtain a representative
sample of the sludge and have it analyzed for those parameters listed
in Appendix I.
If the concentrations of metals or organics are in excess of those
listed in the Criterion, Appendix I, assign the facility a monitoring
priority based on Section 3.2.2 and Table 4-2. If concentrations
are not exceeded, assign the facility a low priority.
3.3 Has an underground drinking water source been contaminated by the
facility beyond the solid waste (or alternate) boundary?
To determine if a facility does not comply with the Criterion, ^
ground water monitoring must be conducted. Reference should be made
to Procedures Manual for Ground Water Monitoring at Solid Waste Disposal
Facilities (EPA-530/SW-611) for guidance on evaluation of existing
monitoring systems, and on design and installation of new monitoring
systems.
Facilities that receive a high monitoring priority in the previous
section (3.2) should be monitored first, followed by medium-priority
facilities. Low priority facilities should be monitored after all
other facilities have been evaluated. The monitoring wells should be
placed to detect contamination beyond the solid waste boundary, unless
an alternate boundary has been specified by the State in accordance
with the Criterion. If no alternate boundary has been specified,, the
solid waste boundary is to be used.
3.3.1 Evaluating Existing Monitoring Systems
If the facility has an adequate existing monitoring system that
is correctly placed with respect to the solid waste or alternate m
boundary, this system may be used for the purpose of the Inventory.
4-20
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If a facility has a monitoring system with wells downgrandient to the
applicable solid waste or alternate boundary, this system may be used
for a non-compliance determination if contamination is detected in
accordance with Section 3.3.4.
The adequacy of the existing monitoring system must be evaluated,
preferably with the assistance of a hydrogeologist. Obtain drilling
logs for each well in the system and a map of the site showing well
locations. The objective of the system is to obtain representative
samples of ground water and to detect contamination in underground
drinking water sources beyond the appropriate boundary. Generally,
the uppermost aquifers will be of concern. Consider these factors:
(a) Number and location of wells.
The system should have at a minimum one well hydraulically
upgradient from the site and at least two wells downgradient.
The static water levels reported for the wells should indicate
the local hydraulic gradient. The downgradient wells should be
located as close as is practicable to the solid waste (or
alternate) boundary without being drilled through the waste.
Wells located in waste should not be used for determinations.
Upgradient and downgradient wells should be located so that samples
are obtained from the same horizon of water-bearing material. When
downgradient wells are being evaluated, local variations in the
hydraulic gradient (such as may be caused by a nearby pumping well
or a ground water mound beneath the facility) should be considered,
as well as any vertical gradients.
For a compliance determination, existing wells inside the solid
waste boundary may be used when no contamination is detected. Otherwise,
additional wells will have to be installed at, or in close proximity to,
the applicable boundary.
(b) Construction of wells.
Well casings should be a minimum of two inches in diameter,
preferably four inches, to allow for ease of pumping and sampling,
A bentonite clay or cement seal or plug should be in place around
the casing, finished at the surface with a cement or earth mound
4-21
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sloped away fron the well to prevent surface drainage down the
casing. The top of the well should be covered with a locking
cap and protected against vandalism and destruction by mobile
equipment. Sufficient labeling should be present indicating the
well location and number. Casing and well screens should be plastic,
unless the waste type involved contains organic pollutants or is
corrosive to plastic. In these cases it will be necessary to use
steel well casing. Metal well parts may give false readings in
metal analyses. Determine, from the driller's log, if drilling
mud or additives were used during well construction. If they were,
ensure that the wells were properly developed (flushed) and that
all traces of drilling mud were removed.
If, in the estimation of the investigator, the existing system
is adequate, proceed to 3.3.3.
3.3.2 New Monitoring Systems
If a new monitoring well or additions to an existing system must
be installed at the site, the system must be designed and installed
considering additional items:
(a) Test borings or geophysical studies may have to be made to
determine the water table gradient and location. Well locations
can then be based on this information.
(b) Wells should be drilled or augered without the use of drilling
mud, if possible. If hydraulic mud is used, the well must be
flushed properly.
(c) A well screen of sufficient length and correct slot size
must be installed. Plastic screens are reccrnmended for most
applications, except when plastic is not compatible with the waste
type, or when casing lengths exceed 50 feet. (The weight of the
casing may compress the screen and close the slots.) A gravel pack
should be installed around the screen to avoid picking up sediment
when the well is pumped.
(d) The downgradient wells should be placed to sample ground
water at the point where contamination is most likely. This
4-22
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depends to a large extent on the site hydrogeology and facility
type and construction. Examples are included in EPA-530/SW-611.
Upgradient wells should then be set to sample from the same
water-bearing horizon (s).
(e) If monitoring will be conducted at an alternate boundary and
this boundary is removed from the facility, monitoring wells
should be installed at several points between the boundary and
the facility. This will assist the investigator in determining
whether any contamination observed at the alternate boundary is
originating at the facility.
(f) Wells should not be installed in areas where waste has been
or will be deposited.
(g) Resistivity or similar methods might prove useful in locating
monitoring wells.
3.3.3 Monitoring Parameters and Sampling
Ground water can be monitored for the specific contaminants (MCL's)
listed in the Criteria, or for tracers or indicators of potential
contamination. The following monitoring parameters are suggested as
part of the program because of their mobility and persistence, their
known association with the waste type, and their inclusion in the Criteria
and the proposed amendment. Additional or other parameters may be used
at State discretion if experience indicates the parameter to be useful
in contamination evaluations. Determinations of non-compliance for the
Inventory can only be made on the basis of the contaminants contained in
the final Criteria. Analytical methods for the following parameters are
referenced in Appendix I of the Criterion.
(a) Landfills - Total dissolved solids (TDS), chloride, iron,
manganese (particularly for municipal landfills). Additional
contaminants may be added, or some of the above removed, depending
on the variety of waste type and the prevalence of a contaminant in
a particular waste, e.g., copper and chrctnium should be added for
metal plating wastes. Refer to Table 4-6.
(b) Surface Impoundments - Total dissolved solids and at least
three additional contaminants listed in the final Criteria that
4-23
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TABLE 4-6
CONSTITUENTS IN INDUSTRIAL AND MUNICIPAL WASTEWATER HAVING
3/t
SIGNIFICANT POTENTIAL FOR GROUND-WATER CONTAMINATION )
MINING (SIC 10, 11, and 12)
Metal and
ph
Sulfate
Nitrate
Chloride
Total dissolved
solids
Phosphate
Copper
Nickel
Lead
Coal Mining Industry (SIC 10, 11,
Zinc
Tin
Vanadium
Radium
Phenol
Selenium
Iron
Chromium
Cadmium
Uranium
and 12)
Magnesium
Silver
Manganese
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Aluminum
Gold
Fluoride
Cyanide
PAPER AND ALLIED PRODUCTS (SIC 26)
COD/BOD
TOC
pH
Arrrnonia
Pulp and Paper Industry (SIC 261 and 262)
Phenols
Sulfite
Color
Heavy metals
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Total dissolved
solids
Biocides
CHEMICALS AND ALLIED PRODUCTS (SIC 28)
COD/BOD
pH
Total dissolved
solids
Organic Chemicals Industry (SIC 286)
Alkalinity
TOC
Total phosphorus
Heavy metals
Phenols
Cyanide
Total nitrogen
(continued)
4-24
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TABLE 4-6
(continued)
CHEMICALS AND ALLIED PRODUCTS (SIC 28) - (continued)
Inorganic Chemicals, Alkalies, and Chlorine Industry (SIC 281)
Acidity/alkalinity Chlorinated benzenoids Chromium
Total dissolved and polynuclear Lead
solids aromatics Titanium
Chloride Phenols Iron
Sulfate Fluoride Aluminum
COD/BOD Total phosphorus Boron
TOC Cyanide Arsenic
Mercury
Plastic Materials and Synthetics Industry (SIC 282)
COD/BOD Phosphorus Ammonia
pH Nitrate Cyanide
Phenols Organic nitrogen Zinc
Total dissolved Chlorinated benzenoids Mercaptans
solids and polynuclear
Sulfate aromatics
Nitrogen Fertilizer Industry (SIC 2873)
Ammonia Sulfate COD
Chloride Organic nitrogen Iron, total
Chromium compounds pH
Total dissolved Zinc Phosphate
solids Calcium Sodium
Nitrate
Phosphate Fertilizer Industry (SIC 2874)
Calcium Acidity Mercury
Dissolved solids Aluminum Nitrogen
Fluoride Arsenic Sulfate
pH Iron Uranium
Phosphorus Cadmium Vanadium
Radium
(continued)
4-25
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TABLE 4-6
(continued)
PETROLEUM AND COAL PRODUCTS (SIC 29)
Petroleum Refining Industry (SIC 291)
Armenia Chloride Nitrogen
QTromium Color Odor
COD/BOD Copper Total phosphorus
pH Cyanide Sulfate
Phenols Iron TOC
Sulfide Lead Turbidity
Total dissolved Mercaptans Zinc
solids
PRIMARY METALS (SIC 33)
Steel Industry (SIC 331)
pH Cyanide Tin
Chloride Phenols Chrcmium
Sulfate Iron Zinc
Ammonia Nickel
ELECTRIC, GAS, AND SANITARY SERVICES (SIC 49)
Power Generation Industry (SIC 491)
COD/BOD Copper Phosphorus
pH Iron Free chlorine
Polychlorinated Zinc Organic biocides
biphenols Chromium Sulfur dioxide
Total dissolved Other corrosion Heat
solids inhibitors
Oil and grease
Municipal Sewage Treatment (SIC 495)
pH Nitrate Sulfate
COD/BOD Ammonia Copper
TOC Phosphate Lead
Alkalinity Chloride Tin
Detergents Sodium Zinc
Total dissolved Potassium Various Organics
solids
4-26
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are mobile in the soil and intrinsic to the waste type. Refer
to Table 4-6.
(c) Landspreading Facilities
(1) Sewage Sludge - Total dissolved solids, nitrate, chloride
and at least one additional contaminant listed in the final
Criteria which has high levels in the sludge.
(2) Other Wastes - Total dissolved solids and at least
three additional contaminants listed in the final Criteria
that are mobile and intrinsic to the waste type. Refer to
Table 4-6.
A parameter might also be selected because the concentration in
the background water is already at or above the level specified in the
Criteria.
Sampling technique in ground-water monitoring is very important,
and standard methods such as those outlined in Handbook for Monitoring
Industrial Wastewater (USEPA, 1973) or Procedures Manual for Ground
Water Monitoring at Solid Waste Disposal Facilities (EPA-530/SW-611)
should be used. A brief set of guidelines follows:
(a) Check equipment and make arrangements with the laboratory
and for sample transportation.
(b) Msasure the static water level in the well.
(c) Flush the well to remove standing water. An amount equal to
five' times the volume of the casing should be removed in high-
yield formations (in low permeability strata, one volume will
suffice).
(d) Allow the well to recharge to the static water level (may
require more than one day).
(e) Clean and/or flush sampling equipment with distilled or
drinking water between samples.
(f) Where appropriate, filter sample during collection. Non-
aerated conditions must be maintained; therefore, do not allow
the water to bubble or splash into the sample container and
filter.
4-27
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(g) Preserve the sample and pack in ice, if necessary, for
shipment.
(h) Clean equipment. Make sure well is securely capped.
3.3.4 Interpretation of Data
Casual interpretation of ground water monitoring data can. sometimes
be misleading. Several types of variation can be introduced into
ground water monitoring data. Sampling error can be reduced by adhering
to the practices outlined in Section 3.3.3. The effects of natural
fluctuation in ground water quality can be reduced by increasing sampling
frequency. The sampling interval should be based on seasonal factors,
the distance to the wells from the waste deposit, and the rate of ground-
water movement. Measurement error can be reduced by splitting a sample
and evaluating the analysis of each split with the Student t-test, as
outlined in Appendix 4-1.
Two options are suggested for data interpretation. The first
option utilizes indicator parameters or tracers and is designed to
provide a quick, low-cost indication of potential contamination. The
second option is based on the Criteria MCL's only.
Option 1;
(a) Analyze upgradient samples for parameters suggested in
Section 3.3.3, depending on the facility type. Note: if
more than one upgradient well is sampled, use the well that
is clearly upgradient, based on flow direction and location
with respect to the facility. If this determination cannot be
made, use the mean value of all upgradient wells.
(b) Analyze downgradient wells for the same parameter(s), and
compare the highest concentration(s) with the upgradient value.
(c) If downgradient concentration(s) are less than upgradient,
the facility complies with the Criterion.
(d) If downgradient concentration(s) are greater than upgradient,
the procedures in Option 2 must be followed.
Option 2;
(a) Analyze downgradient samples for all parameters suspected
to be released by the facility (see Section 3.3.3 and Table 4-6).
4-28
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If this is not known, analyze for all parameters in Appendix 1.
(b) If the highest downgradient concentrations do not exceed
the MCL's, the facility complies with the Criterion.
(c) If the highest downgradient concentrations exceed the MCL's,
analyze upgradient samples for the same parameters. Note: if more
than one upgradient well is sampled, use the well that is clearly
upgradient based on flow direction and location with respect to the
facility. If this determination cannot be made, use the mean value
of all upgradient wells.
(d) If the upgradient value does not exceed the MCL's, the facility
does not comply.
(e) If the upgradient value exceeds the MCL's, additional monitoring
should be done to detect significant increases in downgradient
concentrations. Statistical evaluation is recommended (see Appendix
4-1).
When the evaluations are being made, caution should be exercised
in evaluating the initial analyses of iron and manganese or other
contaminants which might result from a well casing or disturbance of
the soil. Also, in areas where there are other potential sources of
contamination such as industrial activity, sewers, septic systems, and
disposal facilities, contamination may originate from another upgradient
source. Careful checking of upgradient well results, over a period of
time, should be done to determine that the facility is actually the source
of contamination.
4-29
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APPENDIX 4-1
APPLICATION OF STUDENT t-TEST TO MONITORING DATA
4-30
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APPLICATION OF STUDENT t-TEST TO MONITORING DATA
The t-test is a method of comparing two samples to determine if there
is a significant difference between them. The test relies on the assumption
of normality and that sample pairs be observed under the same conditions.
The test uses sample means in its comparison; therefore, it is essential
that each sample be split for several analyses (as the number of splits
approaches 1, the validity of the test approaches "zero").
The data are processed as shown in this example:
Upgradient wells: ttl
#2 - well cap tampered
with; do not use.
Downgradient wells: #3
#4
Samples Split for 5 Analyses Each, Analyzed for Chloride
Analysis
1
2
3
4
5
Well
#1
75 ppm
105
31
64
92
meani=73
Difference
From Meani
2
32
42
9
19
Well
#3
Difference
From Means
295 ppm 32
220
246
271
284
sumi=104 means =263
43
17
8
21
Well
#4
300
297
260
275
289
sum3=121 meanit=284
Difference
From Meanit
16
13
24
9
5
sumi»=67
Calculate Sn/ the sample variance (using one ugradient and one
downgradient well).
S0 =
(sum3)2
m + n2 -2
= (104) 2 + (121) 2
5+5-2
= 3,182
= no. of splits, well #1
= no. of splits, well #3
4-31
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Calculate t:
t = raeani - means
= 73 - 263
= 0.094 (disregard signs)
Compare t with the number opposite the value of (m + na-2) in Table 4-1-1.
If t is less than this number, there is no significant difference between
the samples.
TABLE 4-1-1
t DISTRIBUTION AT 95 PERCENT CONFIDENCE LEVEL
n£2 t ni + na-2
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
12.706
4.303
3.182
2.776
2.571
2.447
2.365
2.306
2.262
2.228
11 2.201
12 2.179
13 2.160
14 2.145
15 2.131
16 2.120
17 2.110
18 2.101
19 2.093
20 2.086
4-32
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Chapter 4
GROUND WATER
Criterion Conplian.ee Decision
QComplies
f~]Does Not Comply
1. Does ground water contain more than 10,000 mg/1 TDS, and is it not being
used as a human drinking water source?
[]] YES (COMPLIES)
D Ground water is not present beneath the site
DGround water has more than 10,000 mg/1 TDS, TDS =
and is not used as a human drinking water source
DGround water is not present in usable quantities beneath
the site
NO (Continue to 2)
QGround water has less than 10,000 mg/l TDS
dGround water is being used as a drinking water source
2. Rank facility according to its contamination potential.
Landfills
DFacility overlies sole source aquifer (high priority)
DFacility has a history of leachate problems (high priority)
D Ranking from Table 4-2
Saturated zone permeability cm/sec
Unsaturated zone thickness m
Unsaturated zone permeability cm/sec
DFacility is in an area where precipitation is exceeded by
evaporation plus transpiration (low priority)
I I High priority
I | Medium priority
Q Low priority
Surface Impoundments
Ranking from Table 4-3
Saturated zone rating
Unsaturated zone rating
priority
[]Medium priority
I""] Low priority
4-33
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Chapter 4
GROUND WATER
Continued
Landspreading Facilities
D Sludge nitrogen is being applied in excess of crop or
vegetative demand (high priority)
D Ranking from Table 4-2 for industrial waste facilities
j~] High priority
r~] Medium priority
j~] Low priority
3. Has an underground drinking water source been contaminated by the
facility beyond the solid waste (or alternate boundary) ?
r~J YES (Does not comply)
D Monitoring shows contamination of a drinking water source
Contaminating substances and concentrations __ _
NO (COMPLIES)
D Facility does not overlie a drinking water source
D Monitoring shows no contamination beyond the solid waste
(or alternate boundary)
4-34
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-------
CHAPTER 5
ENDANGERED AND THREATENED SPECIES
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
{2574-2
(a) Facilities or practices shall not
cause or contribute to the taking of any
endangered or threatened species of
plants, fish, or wildlife.
(b) The facility or practice shall not
result in the destruction or advene
modification of the critical habitat of
endangered or threatened species as
identified in SO CFR Part 17.
(c) As used in this section:
(1) "Endangered or threatened
species" means any species listed as
such pursuant to Section 4 of the
Endangered Species Act
(2) "Destruction or adverse
modification" means a direct or indirect
alteration of critical habitat which
appreciably diminishes the likelihood of
the survival and recovery of threatened
or endangered species using that
habitat.
(3) 'Taking" means harassing,
harming, pursuing, hunting, wounding,
killing, trapping, capturing, or collecting
or attempting to engage in such conduct
2.0 Inventory Procedure
The approach to the endangered species criterion for the purpose
of the inventory is as follows:
(a) Eliminate from further consideration (i.e. complies) if the
facility is not located: (1) within a listed critical habitat, or
(2) within a portion of endangered or threatened species range.
(b) Eliminate from further consideration (i.e. complies) if the
facility has passed an environmental assessment which considered
the facility's impacts upon endangered and threatened species and
critical habitats.
5-1
-------
(c) Determine if the facility results in the destruction or adverse
modification of the critical habitat of an endangered or threatened
species as identified by 50 CFR Part 17.
(d) Determine if the facility causes or contributes to the taking
of an endangered or threatened species of plants, fish, or wildlife.
Figure 5-1 presents the compliance decision flow chart.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Is the facility within a critical habitat or the range of an
endangered or threatened species as listed pursuant to the
Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1530 et. seq. as amended)
in 50 CFR Part 17?
This is determined by referring to the synopsis of the 50 CFR Part
17 listings of endangered and threatened species (Appendix 5-A) , and
critical habitats (Appendix 5-B), promulgated by the Office of Endangerec}
Species (OES) of the Fish and Wildlife Service, U.S. Department of
Interior. Discussions should be held with the State agency or agencies
involved in management, control, and regulation of plants, fish, or
wildlife and/or the OES to determine where the species is actually known
to occur within the State. OES assistance may be necessary to clarify
those instances where the range is not State specific and to ensure
that the listing is current. This information from the State agencies
or the OES should be compiled on maps delineating known areas of concern
for each species.
The evaluation is made by simply comparing the facility location
to the State map. If the facility is not located in a critical habitat
nor within the range of an endangered or threatened species as identified
by the OES or State agency, then the facility complies with the Endangered
Species Criterion.
3.2 Has there been an assessment which enables the determination that
the facility neither results in the destruction or adverse
modification of the critical habitat of endangered or threatened
species nor causes or contributes to the taking of any endangered
or threatened species of plants, fish, or wildlife?
5-2
-------
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There are several instances where previous evaluations may enable
this determination to be made for a specific facility.
(a) If the State has a cooperative agreement with the OES under
Section 6(c) of the Endangered Species Act whereby the State
endangered species program maintains an active and adequate program
for the conservation of endangered species and threatened species
in accordance with the ESA, check with the State endangered species
agency or agencies for a previous assessment of the facility.
Where the facility has passed the State endangered species program's
assessment of the facility's likely inpact upon endangered and
threatened. . . species and critical habitats, then the facility is
in compliance with this Criterion. When no State cooperative
agreement exists under the ESA but an equivalent assessment has
been made for the facility during the permit process and it passed,
then the facility is in compliance with this Criterion. Such an
assessment is usually made as part of the State's review, inspection,
or permit procedures for various State programs or through the State
comments on a Federal permit application by the facility (i.e. a
Clean Water Act Section 404 permit). This question is resolved by
checking past records of the facility.
(b) Where the facility is on Federal land or Federal money is
involved in the construction or operatiqn of the facility, an
assessment of the facility's impacts on endangered or threatened
species might have been made by the Office of Endangered Species, a
State having a cooperative agreement, or the involved Federal agency.
If the facility passed this assessment then the facility complies
with this Criterion. Check the past records of the facility
with the Office of Endangered Species or the involved Federal agency
to determine this.
(c) Where the facility has an individual permit under Section 404
of the Clean Water Act, and the environmental assessment conducted
prior to the issuance of the permit contained an assessment that the
facility was unlikely to adversely impact upon endangered and
5-4
-------
threatened species and critical habitats, then the facility is
in compliance with this criterion. This can be determined by
checking the records of the facility. If necessary, consult
with the appropriate Army Corps of Engineers District or the State
404 permitting agency (where applicable).
(d) If the facility has been evaluated for the Endangered Species
Act provisions (according to (a), (b), or (c) above) and if the
facility passed as a result of a settlanent made to prevent
adverse impact, and the facility complies with this settlement,
then, for the purpose of the Inventory, the facility complies with
this Criterion.
(e) In addition, for the purpose of the Inventory, if ESA
evaluations have been made nearby with no adverse impacts noted
and the appropriate State wildlife agencies indicate that the same
situation exists at the facility under consideration, then the
facility complies with this Criterion. This past environmental
assessment determination will have to be done through State
discretion based on the circumstances. Normally, the facility
will have records or information about this assessment.
3.3 Does the facility result in the destruction or adverse modification
of the critical habitat as identified in 50 CFR Part 17?
The mere location of a facility within a critical habitat does not
necessarily mean that the facility will result in the destruction or
adverse modification of that habitat (e.g., a facility located in a
valley may be within the critical habitat of an endangered bat, but
the bat may only exist in caves near the ridge tops, remaining
unaffected by the facility below).
If the facility is in a critical habitat and no previous assessments
have been made, the State must conduct its own assessment in order to
make a determination. This assessment should be carried out in
consultation with or assistance from the appropriate State agencies
(endangered species or fish and wildlife offices), regional OES office,
5-5
-------
university study team, or private consultant. If a Federal Agency
is involved through lending aid, project permit or other activities,
check with that Federal Agency to see if the OES determination has
been or will be made. Determinations will be facility specific and
made on the best judgment of the evaluator(s). The factors to be
considered in making a determination are:
type of critical habitat
size of critical habitat and size of facility
sensitivity of critical habitat to adverse impacts
species characteristics for which the critical habitat has been
designated (e.g., requirements for food, harborage, water,
reproduction/ etc.)
proximity of facility to critical habitat (e.g., location of
facility vis-a-vis species)
facility design and operational characteristics
Where it is determined that a facility does not directly or
indirectly result in the destruction or adverse nodification of a |
critical habitat in a manner which appreciably diminishes the likelihood
of the survival and recovery of the threatened and endangered species
using that habitat, then the facility complies with this portion of
the criterion.
3.4 Does the facility cause or contribute to the taking of any
endangered or threatened species of plants, fish, or wildlife?
If it has been determined that the facility results in the
destruction or adverse modification of a critical habitat, then the
facility results in the taking of the subject endangered species, and
the facility does not comply with this part of the criterion.
If the facility is located within the portion of the range where
the species is endangered or threatened, and no previous study has
been conducted, the facility must be evaluated for the taking of
endangered or threatened species. Assistance should be obtained as
listed in 3.3 of this chapter.
5-6
-------
The decision determining the effects of disposal facilities
on endangered or threatened species will be facility specific and made
on the best judgment of the evaluator(s).
(a) The factors to be considered in making a determination are:
type of species or species habitat
species characteristics (e.g., nesting and breeding
behavior; range; food, water, and harborage needs;
growth cycles)
sensitivity of species or habitat to adverse environmental
impacts
proximity of facility to species.or species habitat
facility size, design, and operational characteristics
(b) Specific factors for determining whether a facility is causing
or contributing to the "taking" of endangered or threatened species
are:
harassing, harming, pursuing, hunting, wounding, killing,
trapping, capturing, or collecting of species (this
constitutes a "taking" and non-ccmpliance with this
criterion)
loss or adverse modification of habitat (including air and
water pollution impacts)
infringement on breeding, nesting, and feeding activities
interference with species movement
The latter three factors nay or may not constitute a "taking" and
require careful consideration and expert consultation on the factors
listed in (a) before making the determination.
5-7
-------
APPENDIX 5-A
LIST OF ENDANGERED AND THREATENED SPECIES
5-8
-------
WEDNESDAY, JANUARY 17,1979
PART II
DEPARTMENT OF
THE INTERIOR
Fish and Wildlife Service
LIST OF ENDANGERED
AND THREATENED
WILDLIFE AND PLANTS
Republication
5-9
-------
3636
RULES AND REGULATIONS
[4310-55-M]
Title 50Wildlife and Fisheries
CHAPTER IUNITED STATES FISH
AND WILDLIFE SERVICE, DEPART-
MENT OF THE INTERIOR
PART 17ENDANGERED AND
THREATENED WILDLIFE AND PLANTS
Republication of the List of Specie*
CNOTK This document is reprinted from
the issue of Monday. December 11. 1978 (43
PR 58030 )J
AGENCY: Fish and Wildlife Service.
Interior.
ACTION: Republication of the U.S.
Last of Endangered and Threatened
Wildlife and Plants.
SUMMARY: The Service hereby
issues a republication of the list of En-
dangered and Threatened Wildlife and
Plants. An annual publication of this
list is required under the Endangered
Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531-
1543: 87 Stat. 884).
DATE: This list is inclusive of Septem-
ber 30, 1978.
ADDRESSES: Comments concerning
this republication should be sent to
the Director (OES). rj.S. Fish and
Wildlife Service. U.S. Department of
the Interior, Washington, D.C. 20240.
FOR FUHTHKR INFORMATION
CONTACT:
Mr. Keith M. Schreiner, Associate
DirectorFederal Assistance, Wash-
ington, D.C. 20240, telephone 202-
343-4646.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
The list incorporates species officially
listed as Endangered or Threatened
since the republication of the list in
the FEDERAL REGISTER, July 14, 1977
(42 FR 36420). These new species are
African elephant, San Clemente lon-
gerhead shrike. San Clemente sage
sparrow, giant anole, Mona boa. Mona
ground iguana,, island night lizard.
New Mexican ridge-nosed rattlesnake,
Atlantic salt marsh snake, eastern
indigo snake, green sea turtle, logger-
head turtle. Olive (Pacific) Ridley sea
turtle, pine barrens tree frog, golden
coqui, Alabama cavefish, slender chub.
spotfin chub, leopard darter, slack-
water darter, yellowfin madtom, little
kern golden trout, greenback cut-
throat trout. Chittenango ovate amber
snail, flat-spired three-toothed snail,
Iowa Pleistocene snail, noonday snail,
painted snake coiled forest snail. Stock
Island tree snail. Virginia fringed
mountain snail, tan riffle shell, So-
corro isopod, Virginia round-leaf birch,
Contra Costa wallflower, McDonald's
rock cress, Santa Barbara Island live
forever, Rydberg milkvetch, hairy
rattleweed, San Clemente broom. Ha-
waiian wild broadbean. unnamed Pha-
celia, San Diego pogogyne, persistent
trillium. San Clemente Island bush-.
mallow. Eureka evening-primrose. An-
tioch Dunes evening primrose. Cramp-
ton's orcutt grass. Eureka dune grass,
Texas wild-rice, northern wild monk-
snood. San Clemente Island Larkspur,
salt marsh bird's-beak. San Clemente
Island Indian paintbrush, and Furbish
lousewart. Populations of both the
gray wolf and the bald eagle have
been reclassified. The Mexican duck
has been removed from the list as di-
rected by the rulemaking published in
the July 25, 1978. FEDERAL REGISTER
(43 FR 32258-32261). Errors detected
in the FEDERAL REGISTER, July 14, 1977
(42 FR 36420) list have been corrected.
and some scientific names have been
changed to reflect current usage.
Dated: November 20, 1978.
LTTIN A. GREENWALT,
Director, Fish, and
Wildlife Service.
1. The table in 50 CFR 17.11 is re-
vised to read as follows:
FEDERAL REGISTER, VOL 44, NO. 12WEDNESDAY, JANUARY 17, 1979
5-10
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-------
-------
APPENDIX 5-B
CRITICAL HABITATS
5-29
-------
CRITICAL HABITATS
Species
Snail darter (No Map Available)
Florida manatee (No Map Available)
Indian bat (No Map Available)
American crocodile
California condor (No Map Available)
Yellow-shouldered blackbird
St. Croix lizard
Giant anole
Mississippi sandhill crane
Everglade Kite
American Peregrine falcon
Cape Sable seaside sparrow
Dusky seaside sparrow
Morror Bay kangaroo rat
Palila
Alabama caveifsh (No Map Available)
Slackwater darter
Slender chub
Spotf in chub
Yellowf in madtom
Florida Pine Barrens treefrog
Golden coqui
Leopard darter
Houston toad
Mona boa
Mona ground iguana
Gray wolf
Little Kern golden trout
Whooping crane
Date of
Federal Register
04/01/76
09/24/78
09/24/76
09/24/76
09/24/76
11/19/76
06/03/77
07/21/77
08/08/77
08/11/77
08/11/77
08/11/77
08/11/77
08/11/77
08/11/77
09/09/77
09/09/77
09/09/77
09/09/77
09/09/77
11/11/77
11/11/77
01/27/78
01/31/78
02/03/78
02/03/78
03/09/78
04/13/78
05/15/78
Map
Index
LOG.
1
2,4,10
3,1
4
5,19
6
6
6
7
8
9
4
10
11
12
13
13
14
1
14
15
6
16
17
6
6
18
19
20
(continued)
5-30
-------
CRITICAL HABITATS (continued)
Map
Date of Index
Species Federal Register LOG.
New Mexico ridge-nosed rattlesnake 08/04/78 21
Conta Costa wallflower and Antioch Dune 08/31/78 22
evening primrose
Leatherback sea turtle 09/26/78 23
Source: Office of Endangered Species, DOI, October 1979.
5-31
-------
z
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5-32
-------
Chapter 5
ENDANGERED SPECIES
Criterion Compliance Decision
[^Complies
Doses Not Comply
1. Is the facility within a critical habitat or the portion of the range
where endangered or threatened for an endangered or threatened species as
listed pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1530
et seq. as amended) in 50 CFR Part 17?
D YES (Continue to 2)
[UNO (COMPLIES)
2. Has there been an assessment which enables the determination that the
facility neither results in the destruction or adverse modification of
the critical habitat of endangered or threatened species, nor causes
or contributes to the taking of any endangered or threatened species
of plants, fish, or wildlife?
DYES (COMPLIES)
DFacility has passed assessment made by State, according
to facility records
LJFacility has passed assessment made by OES or other
Federal agency
DFacility has an individual 404 Permit with an assessment
section
DFacility has passed evaluation as a result of settlement
made to prevent adverse impact
DNearby assessments have indicated comparable situation at
facility is not a problem
UNO (Continue to 3)
3. Does the facility result in the destruction or adverse modification of
a critical habitat?
Factors considered:
Type of critical habitat_
Size of critical habitat
Sensitivity of critical habitat to adverse impacts
Critical habitat species characteristics
Proximity of facility to critical habitat
Facility design and operational characteristics
5-33
-------
Chapter 5
ENDANGERED SPECIES
(continued)
D YES (Does not comply - Continue to 4)
[UNO (Continue to 4)
4. Does the facility cause or contribute to the taking of any endangered or
threatened species of plants, fish, or wildlife?
Factors considered:
Type of species and species habitat
Species characteristics
Sensitivity of species and species habitat to adverse impacts
Proximity of facility
Facility size, design, and operational characteristics
Adverse ^impacts considered;
Harassing, harming, pursuing, hunting, wounding, killing, trapping,
capturing, or collecting species (direct violation of ESA, does
not comply)
.Adverse modification or loss of habitat (including air & water
pollution)
Infringement on breeding, nesting, and feeding' activities ~"~
Interference with species movement
QYES (Does not comply)
DNO (COMPLIES)
5-34
-------
CHAPTER 6(a)
DISEASE: VECTORS
1.0 Criterion
(a) Disease Vectors. The facility or
practice shall not exist or occur unless
the on-site population of disease vectors
is minimized through the periodic
application of cover material or other
techniques as appropriate so as to
protect public health.
(c) As used in this section:
(2) "Disease vector" means rodents,
flies, and mosquitoes capable of
transmitting disease to humans.
(3) "Incorporated into the soil" means
the injection of solid waste beneath the
surface of the soil or the mixing of solid
waste with the surface soil.
(4) "Periodic application" of cover
material" means the application and
compaction of soil or other suitable
material over disposed solid waste at
the end of each operating day or at such
frequencies and in such a manner as to
reduce the risk of fire and to impede
vectors' access to the waste.
2.0 The approach for compliance with the Disease Criterion for purposes of
the Inventory is as follows:
(a) For rodents and flies, procedures to evaluate landfills and
landspreading facilities are presented. Rodents and flies are
not of concern, at surface impoundments because they are not
attracted to such facilities. For purposes of the Inventory
the rodent of concern is the rat.
(b) For mosquitoes, procedures for evaluation of all three
facility types are presented.
(c) Facilities which landspread sewage sludge and septic tank
pumpings are covered in Section 6(b) and are not subject to
this section.
The compliance decision flow chart is presented in Figure 6(a)-l.
-------
DOES THE FACILITY MINIMIZE THE ON-SITE POPULATION OF
DISEASE VECTORS THROUGH THE PERIODIC APPLICATION OF
COVER MATERIAL OR OTHER TECHNIQUES AS APPROPRIATE
SO AS TO PROTECT PUBLIC HEALTH?
YES
COMPLIES
NO
DOES NOT
COMPLY
FIGURE 6(a)-1 FLOW CHART-DISEASE VECTORS
11/79
6 (a)-2
-------
2.1 Definitions
"Putrescible wastes" means solid waste which contains organic
matter capable of being decomposed by microorganisms and of such a
character and proportion as to be capable of attracting or providing
food for disease vectors.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Question;
Does the facility minimize the on-site population of disease vectors
through the periodic application of cover material or other techniques
as appropriate so as to protect public health?
(a) Rats and Flies
(1) Landfills
- Rats and flies are only of concern at facilities
which accept wastes attractive to these vectors.
If a facility does not accept putrescible wastes and
is not a breeding ground or habitat for rats the
facility complies.
- For facilities which accept putrescible wastes,
the primary control technique is the application of
periodic cover material. To determine if the facility
practices this technique, it will be necessary to
assess the history of the facility through records
of inspections and complaints and to make a final
inspection. If both the records and the field
inspection indicate that daily cover is being
practiced the facility complies. The state can
determine that the application of adequate cover is
being practiced even if during certain times of the
year it is less than daily due to weather conditions.
- If the cover practice is less than daily, then other
techniques such as:
6 (a)-3
-------
repellants,
insecticides or rodenticides,
composting or processing,
predatory or reproductive control,
may be considered sufficient control to determine
compliance.
- If the cover practice is less than daily (due to
conditions other than weather) and the above techniques
are not used or are determined by the state to be
insufficient to minimize the rats and flies at the
facility, the facility does not comply.
(2) Landspreading
When putrescible wastes, such as food processing wastes,
are landspread there is a potential for the attraction of
rats and flies. The preferred method of controlling these
vectors is to incorporate the waste material into the soil.
It may also be necessary to treat some wastes with a process,
such as biological digestion or composting (see 6(b)
Appendix 2) , to render the material less attractive to the
vectors. In some cases, treatment may be acceptable in
lieu of incorporation. If only non-putrescible wastes are
being applied, the facility complies.
The actual determination of the presence of rats and
flies will be made by inspecting the facility for evidence
of these vectors and evaluating past inspection and complaint
records. If the waste is incorporated and/or treated
sufficiently or there is no evidence of these vector's, the
facility complies. *
If the facility practices a technique such as the
application of rodenticide or insecticide which consols
these vectors to the satisfaction of the state, the facility
complies. If there is evidence of rats or flies or past
6 (a)-4
-------
inspections indicate there is a problem with these vectors
and no attempt is being made to control them, the facility
does not comply.
(b) Mosquitoes
(1) Landfills and Landspreading Facilities
The presence of standing water is the only mosquito
attractant associated with landfills and landspreading
facilities. If water is allowed to stand for more than
three days, it can be used by mosquitoes for breeding.
Some places water will tend to collect include:
- depressions over the surface
- open containers
- tires stored in a separate area of the fill
- ponds from excavating soil
- leachate storage
- siltation basins
If a facility is operated so as to minimize standing
water, mosquitoes will be controlled and the facility complies.
A facility can also comply, regardless of standing water, if
an insecticide spraying program exists which the state
determines is sufficient to protect the public health. To
decide that a facility does not comply with the criterion
it will be necessary to determine that standing water exists,
that it supports a population of mosquito larvae, and that
the resultant population of adult mosquitoes is sufficient
to be a hazard to the public health,
(2) Surface Impoundments
A surface impoundment can serve as a breeding site
for mosquitoes. If present, the larvae will be found
near the edge of the impoundment and near vegetation or
organic debris. The mosquito potential can be minimized
by operational controls such as agitating the surface
6 (a)-5
-------
or varying the level of the water. Also the presence of
other aquatic organisms which feed on mosquito larvae or
compete for food will restrict the population. Adult
mosquitoes can be controlled with an insecticide program.
The facility complies with this Criterion if
mosquito larvae are not observed at the facility or the
mosquito population is restricted by the above techniques
to the satisfaction of the state.
The facility does not comply if the State determines
it to pose a public health problem due to the mosquito
population.
6(a)-6
-------
Chapter 6(a)
DISEASE; VECTORS
Criterion Compliance Decision
I]Complies
Q Does Not Comply
1. Does the facility minimize the on-site population of disease vectors
through the periodic application of cover material or other techniques
as appropriate so as to protect public health?
YES (COMPLIES)
Rats and Flies
Landfills
D
D
Facility applies daily cover
Facility is not one which applies daily cover
Type of facility
Reason why daily cover is not necessary
n
Schedule for application of cover _
Facility practices other techniques
- Repellants
- Insecticides or rodenticides
- Composting or processing
- Predatory or reproductive control
Landspreading
Is waste material putrescible?
Is the waste material incorporated into the soil?
D
D
Mosquitos
Landfills and Landspreading
D No visual observation of mosquitoes, mosquito larvae,
or flies
D Waste is incorporated
D Waste is properly treated prior to application
D No presence or potential for standing water
D Records of inspections show no evidence of disease vector
problems
6 (a)-7
-------
Chapter 6(a)
DISEASE; VECTOBS
Criterion Compliance Decision
(continued)
Mosquitos (continued)
Surface Impoundments
D Facility provides environmental control techniques
D Varying water level
D Agitation of water
D Removal of vegetation
D Presence of aquatic life
D No visual observation of mosquito larvae
D Effective insecticide program
[Hj NO (Does not comply)
6 (a) -8
-------
CHAPTER 6(b)
DISEASE:
SEWAGE SLUDGE AND SEPTIC TANK PUMPINGS
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
(b) Sewage sludge and septic tank
pumpings (Interim Final). A facility or
practice involving disposal of sewage
sludge or septic tank pumpings shall not
exist or occur unless in compliance with
paragraphs (b) (1), (2) or (3] of this
section.
(1) Sewage sludge that is applied to
the land surface or is incorporated into
the soil is treated by a Process to
Significantly Reduce Pathogens prior to
application or incorporation. Public
access to the facility is controlled for at
least 12 months, and grazing by animals
whose products are consumed by
humans is prevented for at least one
month. Processes to Significantly
Reduce Pathogens are listed in
Appendix II, Section A. (These
provisions do not apply to sewage
sludge disposed of by a trenching or
burial operation.)
(2) Septic tank pumpings that are
applied to the land surface or
incorporated into the soil are treated by
a Process to Significantly Reduce
Pathogens (as listed in Appendix II,
Section A), prior to application or
incorporation, unless public access to
the facility is controlled for at least 12
months and unless grazing by animals
whose products are consumed by
humans is prevented for at least one
month. (These provisions do not apply
to septic tank pumpings disposed of by a
trenching or burial operation.)
(3) Sewage sludge or septic tank
pumpings that are applied to the land
surface or are incorporated into the Soil
are treated by a Process to Further
Reduce Pathogens, prior to application
or incorporation, if crops for direct
human consumption are grown within 18
months subsequent to application or
incorporation. Such treatment is not
required if there is no contact between
the solid waste and the edible portion of
the crop; however, in this case the solid
waste is treated by a Process to
Significantly Reduce Pathogens, prior to
application; public access to the facility
is controlled for at least 12 months; and
grazing by animals whose products are
consumed by humans is prevented for at
least one month. If crops for direct
human consumption are not grown
within 18 months of application or
incorporation, the requirements of
paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section
apply. Processes to Further Reduce
Pathogens are listed in Appendix II.
Section B.
(c) As used in this sections
[I] "Crops for direct human
consumption" means crops that are
consumed by humans without
processing to minimize pathogens prior
to distribution to the consumer.
(2) "Disease vector" means rodents,
flies, and mosquitoes capable of
transmitting disease to humans.
(3) "Incorporated into the soil" means
the injection of solid waste beneath the
surface of the soil or the mixing of solid
waste with the surface soil
(4) "Periodic application of cover
material" means the application and
compaction of soil or other suitable
material over disposed solid waste at
the end of each operating day or at such
frequencies and in such a manner as to
reduce the risk of fire and to impede
vectors' access to the waste.
(5) "Trenching or burial operation"
means the placement of sewage sludge
or septic tank pumpings in a trench or
other natural or man-made depression
and the covering with soil or other
suitable material at the end of each
operating, day such that the wastei do
not migrate to the surface.
-------
B. Processes to Further Reduce Pathogens
Composting: Using the within-vessel
composting method, the solid waste is
maintained at operating conditions of 55° C
or greater for three days. Using the static .
aerated pile composting method, the solid
waste is maintained at operating conditions
of 55° C or greater for three days. Using the
windrow composting method, the solid waste
attains a temperature of 55° C or greater for
at least 15 days during the composting period.
Also, during the high temperature period.
there will be a minimum of five turnings of
the windrow.
Heat dryng: Dewatered sludge cake is
dried by direct or indirect contact with hot
gases, and moisture content is reduced to 10
percent or lower. Sludge particles reach
temperatures well in excess of 80° C, or the
wet bulb temperature of the gas stream in
contact with the sludge at the point where it
leaves the dryer is in excess of 80° C.
Heat treatment: Liquid sludge is heated to
temperatures of 180° C for 30 minutes.
Thermophilic Aerobic Digestion: Liquid
sludge is agitated with air or oxygen to
maintain aerobic conditions at residence
times of 10 days at 55-60° C, with a volatile
solids reduction of at least 38 percent.
Other methods: Other methods or operating
conditions may be acceptable if pathogens
and vector attraction of the waste (volatile
solids) are reduced to an extent equivalent to
the reduction achieved by any of the above
methods.
Any of the processes listed below, if added
to the processes described in Section A
above, further reduce pathogens. Because the
processes listed below, on their own, do not
reduce the attraction of disease vectors, they
are only add-on in nature.
Beta ray irradiation: Sludge is irradiated
with beta rays from an accelerator at dosages
of at least 1.0 megarad at room temperature
(ca. 20' C).
Gamma ray irradiation: Sludge is
irradiated with gamma rays from certain
isotopes, such as ""Cobalt and '"Cesium, at
dosages of at least 1.0 megarad at room
temperature (ca. 20° C).
Pasteurization: Sludge is maintained for at
least 30 minutes at a minimum temperature of
70° C.
Other methods: Other methods or operating
conditions may be acceptable if pathogens
are reduced to an extent equivalent to the
reduction achieved by any of the above add-
on methods.
A. Processes to Significantly Reduce
Pathogens
Aerobic digestion: The process is
conducted by agitating sludge with air or
oxygen to maintain aerobic conditions at
residence times ranging from 60 days at 15° C
to 40 days at 20° C, with a volatile solids
reduction of at least 38 percent.
Air Drying: Liquid sludge is allowed to
drain and/or dry on under-drained sand
beds, or paved or unpaved basins in which
the sludge is at a depth of nine inches. A
minimum of three months is needed, two
months of which temperatures average on a
daily basis above 0° C.
Anaerobic digestion: The process is
conducted in the absence of air at residence
times ranging from 60 days at 20* C to 15
days at 35° to 55° C, with a volatile solids
reduction of at least 38 percent.
Composting: Using the within-vessel, static
aerated pile or windrow composting methods,
the solid waste is maintained at minimum
operating conditions of 40* C for 5 days. For
four hours during this period the temperature
exceeds 55* C.
Lime Stabilization: Sufficient lime is added
to produce a pH of 12 after 2 hours of contact.
Other methods: Other methods or operating
conditions may be acceptable if pathogens
and vector attraction of the waste (volatile
solids] are reduced to an extent equivalent to
th« reduction achieved by any of the above
method*.
6(b)-2
-------
2.0 Inventory Procedure
This Criterion applies to all landspreading facilities where
sewage sludge or septic tank purrpings are applied to the surface of
the land or incorporated into the soil. The Criterion addresses the
potential hazard of vectors and pathogen transmission by controlling
public access, agricultural practices, and treatment procedures.
For the purpose of the Inventory/ it will be necessary to interview
the sewage treatment plant owner/operator, sewage sludge or septic
tank punpings hauler, and/or landspreading facility owner/operator to
determine if the waste has been properly treated, access is controlled,
and the prescribed agricultural practices are followed. The treatment
facility and operating plans and records may need to be inspected, as
well as the landspreading facility. Figure 6(b)-l presents the
compliance decision flow chart.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Are sewage sludge or septic tank punpings applied to the surface
of the land or incorporated into the soil?
(a) To determine the location of disposal sites for septic tank
punpings and sewage sludge, contact the appropriate government
regulatory agency such as the State or local Health Department
and the water pollution control agency. Should these agencies
not have the appropriate information, contact the individual
scavenger companies and sewage treatment plants for information
on their disposal method and site.
(b) This Criterion is concerned with all landspreading facilities,
including both food chain and non-food chain lands. Trenching
or burial operations are not subject to these provisions.
3.2 Are crops planted for human consumption within 18 months after
application of waste?
(a) The determination that crops grown for human consumption are
not planted can be made if the crop grown is not ordinarily
consumed by man or if the operating plan specifically precludes
6(b)-3
-------
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6 (b) -4
-------
the crop from this use. The determination must be made based on
crops planted at the time of the Inventory as to whether they are
grown for human consumption. If they are not for human consumption,
proceed to 3.5.
(b) If the crops planted at the time of the Inventory are for
human consumption, then it must be determined:
- when the crop was planted
- the date of the last waste application
The treatment plant operator is one source of information on
sludge application dates and the facility farmer may have a
record of when the crop was planted.
3.3 Does the waste contact the food portion of the crop?
Contact with the food portion can be either by direct application
of the waste material to the growing crop or by rainfall splash
subsequent to application. Therefore, the points of concern are the
timing and method of application and the type of crop grown. Crops
which bear the food portion close to the ground such as is the case
with many vegetables should be considered to have contact between the
food portion and the waste. Taller growing crops such as many grains
and citrus fruits can be considered not to have contact with the
waste so long as it is applied in a manner or at a time that direct
contact does not occur.
If there is any question concerning the food portion of the
crop, consult with:
the facility operator
the facility farmer or other local farmers
buyers such as grain dealers and co-ops
Agricultural Extension Service
State Department of Agriculture
State University Agriculture Department
6 (b) -5
-------
3.4 Is the waste treated by a process to further reduce pathogens?
Acceptable processes for the further reduction of pathogens are
listed in Appendix II, Section B of the Criteria. Verification that
an accepted process for additional pathogen reduction is used must be
obtained. Specific information should be available from the records
of the sewage treatment plant or septic tank hauler where the material
originated. Other sources of information are the State and local
health and water pollution control agencies. If this verification
cannot be made the presumption is that an appropriate additional
pathogen reduction process has not been utilized.
3.5 Is sewage sludge the waste material being applied?
Sewage sludge and septic tank pumpings are treated somewhat
differently by the Criterion. Determine which substance is being
applied at the facility.
3.6 Has the sludge been treated by a process to significantly reduce
pathogens and is access controlled - 12 months for the public,
and 1 month for grazing animals whose products are consumed by
man?
(a) Acceptable processes for reducing pathogens are listed in
Appendix II, Section A, of the Criteria. Verification that an
accepted process for pathogen reduction is used must be obtained.
Specific information should be available from the records of
the sewage treatment plant or septic tank hauler where the
material originated. Other sources of information are the State
and local health and water pollution control agencies. If this
verification cannot be made the presumption is that an appropriate
pathogen reduction process has not been utilized.
(b) Specific access controls are addressed in the access section
of this manual. Where waste is applied to public access areas
positive control measures should be taken; however, in the case
of private farmland, this should not be necessary unless the
area is subject to frequent trespass by the general public.
6 (b) -6
-------
The farmer, his family and employees are considered "authorized
persons" as covered in Chapter 2(d).
3.7 Has the waste been treated by a process to significantly reduce
pathogens or is access prevented - 12 months for the public and
1 month for grazing animals whose products are consumed by man?
The requirements for septic tank pumpings are identical to those
for sewage sludge as addressed by Question 3.6, except that either
access must be controlled or a pathogen reduction process must be used
rather than both.
6(b)-7
-------
Chapter 6(b)
SEWAGE SLUDGE AND SEPTIC
TANK PUMPINGS
Criterion Compliance Decision
LJ Conplies
CD Does Not Comply
1. Are sewage sludge or septic tank pumpings applied to the surface of the
land or incorporated into the soil?
Q YES (Continue to 2)
[D NO (COMPLIES)
D Facility is a trenching or burial operation
2. Are crops planted for human consumption within 18 months after application
of waste?
Q YES (Continue to 3)
CD Crops grown at time of inventory are for human consumption
Q Information from operating plan
n Past usage or crops in the'vicinity
Q Information frou facility owner/operator
CD NO (Continue to 5)
3. Does the waste contact the food portion of the crop?
D YES (Continue to 4)
D Direct application or rainfall splash
Q Crops with food portion close to the ground
Q Taller crops that receive application early in growing stage
CD NO (Continue to 6)
4. Is the waste treated by a process to further reduce pathogens?
CD YES (COMPLIES)
D Verification of acceptable process fran appropriate source
Source used
CD NO (Does not comply - continue to 5)
Q Verification cannot be made
6 (b) -8
-------
Chapter 6(b)
SEWA.OE: SLUDGE AND SEPTIC
TANK PUMPINGS
(Continued)
5. Is sewage sludge the waste material being applied?
G YES (Continue to 6)
ONO (Continue to 7)
6. Has the sludge been treated by a process to significantly reduce pathogens
and is access controlled - 12 months for the public, and 1 month for
grazing animals whose products are consumed by man?
Q YES (Both reduction process and access control must be checked)
(COMPILES)
D Verification of acceptable process fran appropriate source
Source used
D Appropriate access controls are used in public access areas
DFacility is on private farmland not subject to frequent
trespass
Q NO (Does not comply)
D Verification cannot be made
QNo access controls are used
Q Facility is on private farmland subject to frequent trespass,
and access is not controlled
7. Has the waste been treated by a process to significantly reduce pathogens
or is access prevented - 1.? months for the public and 1 month for grazing
animals whose products are consumed by man?
D ₯ES (COMPLIES)
D Verification of acceptable process from appropriate source
Source used
DAccess controlled
NO (Does not comply)
6 (b) -9
-------
CHAPTER 7
APPLICATION TO LAND USED FOR THE PRODUCTION
OF FOOD CHAIN CROPS
1.0 Criterion and Definitials
§ 257.3-5 Application to land uMd for th«
production of food-chain crop* (Interim
final).
(a) Cadmium. A facility or practice
concerning application of solid waste to
within one meter (three feet) of the
surface of land used for the production
of food-chain crops shall not exist or
occur, unless in compliance with all
requirements of paragraph (a)(l) (i)
through (iii) of this section or all
requirements of paragraph (a)(2) {i]
through (iv) of this section.
(l)(i) The pH of the solid waste and
soil mixture is &.5 or greater at the time
of each solid waste application, except
for solid waste containing cadmium at
concentrations of 2 mg/kg (dry weight)
or less.
(ii) The annual application of
cadmium from solid waste does not
exceed 0.5 kilograms per hectare (kg/ha)
on land used for production of tobacco,
leafy vegetables or root crops grown for
human consumption. For other food-
chain crops, the annual cadmium
application rate does not exceed:
Time pwiod
Annual Cd
application rate
(kg/h*|
Present to June 30, 1984
July 1, 1984 to Dec. 31, 1986..
Beginning Jan. 1, 1987...
2.0
125
0.5
(iii) The cumulative application of
cadmium from solid waste does not
exceed the levels in either paragraph
(a)(l)(iii)(A) of thi» section or paragraph
(a)(lj(iii)(B) of this section.
(A)
Maximum cumulative application (kg/ha)
Soil cation Background soil pH Background soil pH
excnartge capacity <6.5 ^ 6.5
-------
content is less than 0.2 mg/kg (actual
weight) in animal feed or less than 1.5
mg/kg (fat basis) in milk.
(c) As used in this section:
(1) "Animal feed" means any crop
grown for consumption by animals, such
as pasture crops, forage, and grain.
(2) "Background soil pH" means the
pH of the soil prior to the addition of
substances that alter the hydrogen ion
concentration.
(3) "Cation exchange capacity" means
the sum of exchangeable cations a soil
can absorb expressed in milli-
equivalents per 100 grams of soil as
determined by sampling the soil to the
depth of cultivation or solid waste
placement, whichever is greater, and
analyzing by the summation method for
distinctly acid soils or the sodium
acetate method for neutral, calcareous
or saline soils ("Methods of Soil
Analysis, Agronomy Monograph No. 9."
C. A. Black, ed., American Society of
Agronomy, Madison, Wisconsin, pp 091-
901, 1965).
(4) "Food-chain crops" means
tobacco, crops grown for human
consumption, and animal feed for
animals whose products are consumed
by humans.
(5) "Incorporated into the soil" means
the injection of solid waste beneath the
surface of the soil or the mixing of solid
waste with the surface soil.
(6) "Pasture crops" means crops such
as legumes, grasses, grain stubble and
stover which are consumed by animals
while grazing.
(7) "pH" means the logarithm of the
reciprocal of hydrogen ion
concentration.
(8) "Root crops" means plants-whose
edible parts are grown below the
surface of the soil.
(9) "Soil pH" is the value obtained by
sampling the soil to the depth of
cultivation or solid waste placement,
whichever is greater, and analyzing by
the electrometric method. ("Methods of
Soil Analysis, Agronomy Monograph
No. 9," C.A. Black, ed., American,
Society of Agronomy, Madison,
Wisconsin, pp. 914-926,1965.]
2.0 Inventory Procedure
This Criterion is applicable only to facilities where solid waste
is applied to land used for the production of food chain crops.
Although a facility may comply with this Criterion, it still must
comply with all of the other criteria.
The approach to this Criterion is to divide the Criterion into its
two areas of concern:
Cadmium is addressed by two approaches: one controls the
application rate and the other controls the crop and its
marketing. Both approaches require control of pH.
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) are addressed by method of
application.
4
7-2
-------
The compliance decision flow charts are contained in Figures 7-1
and 7-2.
3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Is solid waste applied within one meter of the surface of land
used for the production of food chain crops?
(a) "Applied within one meter of the surface of land" refers to
waste being injected, spread on the surface, or plowed into the
soil. For the purpose of the Inventory, landfills, regardless of
cover depth, are not subject to these requirements.
(b) "Food chain crops" are tobacco, crops grown for human
consumption, and animal feed for animals whose products are
consumed by man.
(c) The land is to be considered "for the production of food chain
crops," if the crop grown at the time of the Inventory is
ordinarily ingested by man or by animals whose products are
consumed by man, unless there is an operations or marketing
plan which precludes the crop from this use. Specific information
on the potential consumers or uses of particular crops should be
available through any of the following sources:
the facility operator
the facility farmer or other local farmers
buyers such as grain dealers and co-ops
local Agricultural Extension Service
State Department of Agriculture
State University Agriculture Department
(d) If possible, perform the inspection during the growing season;
however, if no crop is being grown at the time of the Inventory
the determination can be made based on information from the
operating plan, past usage of the facility, crops grown in the
vicinity, or discussion with the owner, operator, or facility
farmer.
7-3
-------
S'r
CK
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52 =
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*
£ £
DOES A HOTICE AffEAH W THf
LAHD HECBROS MOT IF YW 6 AMY
FDTttRE OWRERS THAT THE
nonHTY «M fICCIEVEB SOtID
WASTE AT HUH CADMIUM
ATPtKATHW RATES AW THAT
FOOD CHAIN CRQfS SHOULD ROT
BE iROWN. DUE TO A FOSMLE
HEALTH HAZARD?
si-»
=s:
ilt
iiii
*«eu
iSi
I "l
1
IS THF ANNUAL APftKATIOH
RATE OF CAOWIW IB EX
CESS BF 1 K|A(T (1 IS KfAu
AFTER IrtW ARD ! K|At
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> e
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7-4
-------
* O
7-5
-------
3.2 Is there an operating plan which demonstrates how the crop is to
be distributed to preclude ingestion by humans and provides
safeguards to prevent possible health hazards resulting from
alternative future uses of the land?
(a) To determine if the facility is meeting this requirement, read
the operating plan and discuss with the operator or facility
farmer the chain of possession of the crop after harvest. To
comply, the crop must be distributed so that there is no chance
of ingestion by humans; for example, it could be sold directly to
a dairy farm or feed lot where it would be fed to cattle. The
operating plan must also describe the measures being taken to
safeguard against possible health hazards from cadmium entering
the food chain, which may result from alternative future land uses.
Some future land uses, such as the establishment of vegetable farms
or home vegetable gardens, could result in significant dietary
increases of cadmium. Such provisions in the facility operating
plan could include: dedication of the facility as a public park,
placement of fresh top soil over the site, or removal of the
contaminated soil. If the facility meets this requirement,
continue through the crop control option (question 3.3). If it
does not, continue through the application rate option (Question
3.5).
3.3 Does a notice appear in the land records notifying any future
owners that the property has received solid waste at high
cadmium application rates and that food chain crops should not be
grown, due to a possible health hazard?
Obtain a copy of the land records from the owner or the State
or local government land records department. If the notice does not
appear, the facility does not comply with the Criterion.
3.4 Is the solid waste and soil mixture at pH 6.5 or greater' at the
time of solid waste application or at the time the crop is
planted, whichever occurs later?
7-6
-------
Obtain a sample of the soil where waste has been applied
following the guidelines in Appendix 7-1. If the pH of the sample
is 6.5 or higher or if the pH is close to this range and pH control
is being attempted, the facility complies,- if not, the facility does
not comply.
3.5 Is the background soil pH greater than 6.5 or are there adequate
safeguards to assure that the soil pH will be maintained at 6.5
or higher whenever food chain crops are grown?
The background soil pH refers to the pH of the soil prior to the
addition of a substance that alters the hydrogen ion concentration.
The primary sources of information on background soil pH will be the
Soil Conservation Service maps and reports and the local Agricultural
Extension Service. In the absence of information from these sources,
a laboratory analysis must be performed. Obtain the sample from areas
in the vicinity of the facility which have not been recently subjected
to pH adjustment such as fence rows, fields that have been fallow for
some time or forested areas.
The second way to comply with the pH greater than 6.5 requirement
is to control the soil pH whenever food chain crops are grown. This
method is intended only for facilities that are closely managed by the
solid waste generator. The generator must clearly demonstrate long-
term safeguards that will assure the soil pH will be maintained at
6.5 or higher whenever food chain crops are grown. Such safeguards
could include a facility management plan which would consist of routine
soil pH monitoring and liming the soil when necessary, or a statement
in writing from the facility owner that this requirement will be met.
3.6 Has the cumulative application of cadmium exceeded 5 kg/ha with
a CEC less than 5; 10 kg/ha with a CEC 5-15; or 20 kg/ha with a
CEC greater than 15?
Section 257.3-5(a)(1)(iii) contains a matrix showing the maximum
cumulative application of cadmium allowed for the described background
soil pH and cation exchange capacity. Due to a general lack of
accurate records and the rigor of determining compliance by other means
7-7
-------
a screen has been developed. For the purpose of the inventory the
maximum cumulative cadmium application has been converted front
kilograms of cadmium per hectare of soil area to a soil cadmium
concentration in milligrams per kilograms. The levels are listed in
the table below:
Cation Exchange Cumulative Loading Soil Cadmium (joncen-
Capacity _ Rate, kg/ha _ tration,
<5 5 2.27
5-15 10 4.5
>15 20 9.08
The conversion was made using a typical plow depth, soil density,
and background cadmium concentration.
With the upper limits of the matrix stated in terms of soil cadmium
concentrations, a comparison can be made with the current cadmium
concentration to identify facilities that need additional soil monitoring
and analysis to verify compliance.
(a) The soil cation exchange capacity (CEC) information may be
available from the Soil Conservation Service or the local.
Agricultural Extension Service. In the absence of information
from these sources, a laboratory analysis must be performed.
Obtain the sample from areas in the facility which have been
receiving solid waste (see Appendix 7-1) .
(b) To determine the soil cadmium concentration, obtain a sample
for analysis in the area to which waste is to be applied (see
Appendix 7-1) .
(c) If the analysis shows the cadmium concentration to be less
than the soil concentrations given above, the facility complies.
(d) If the analysis shows the cadmium concentration to be in
excess of the soil concentrations given above, further analysis
will be necessary to prove non-compliance.
(e) Determine the cumulative cadmium loading as described in
Appendix 7-1. If the application is determined to exceed the
7-8
-------
rates listed in the Criterion, the facility does not comply.
If it is less, the facility complies.
3.7 Has the cumulative application of cadmium exceeded 5 kg/ha?
Due to a general lack of accurate records and the rigor of
determining compliance by other means a screen has been developed.
For the purpose of the Inventory the maximum cumulative application
has been converted from kilograms of cadmium per hectare of soil area
to a soil cadmium concentration of 2.27 milligrams per kilogram.
The conversion was made using a typical plow depth, soil density, and
background cadmium level.
(a) To determine the soil cadmium concentration, obtain a sample
from analysis in the area to which waste has been applied (see
Appendix 7-1).
(b) If the analysis shows the cadmium concentration to be less
than 2.27, the facility complies.
(c) If the analysis shews the cadmium concentration to be greater
than 2.27, further analysis will be necessary to prove non-
compliance .
(d) Determine the cumulative cadmium loading as described in
Appendix 7-1. If the application is determined to exceed
5 kilograms per hectare, the facility does not comply. If it
is less, the facility complies.
3.8 Is the annual application rate of cadmium in excess of 2 kg per
ha (1.25 kg per ha after 1/1/84 and 0.5 kg per ha after 1/1/87)?
(a) Estimate the amount of waste which is applied to the facility
in the past twelve months. It may be possible to obtain all this
information from the operating records, or it may be necessary to
analyze the waste for solids content and cadmium concentration
(see Appendix 7-1), and obtain information from the operator on
the total amount of material which would be expected to be
applied in one year.
7-9
-------
(b) With this information, corpliance with the criterion can be
determined from Figure 7-3.
3.9 If waste is applied to land used for the production of tobacco,
leafy vegetables, or root crops for human consumption, is the
cadmium loading rate less than 0.5 kg per ha per year?
(a) "Root crops" are plants whose edible parts are grown telow
the surface of the soil.
(b) Similarly, "leafy vegetables" are those whose leaves are
ordinarily ingested by humans, such as lettuce and cabbage.
If there is any question as to the use of any portion of the
crop, information could be available through:
the facility operator
the facility farmer or other local fanners
buyers such as grain dealers and co-ops
local Agricultural Extension Service
State Department of Agriculture
State University Agriculture Department
(c) Estimate the total amount of waste which has been applied
in the past twelve months and analyze the waste material for
cadmium concentration (see Appendix 7-1) . With this information
compliance can be determined from Figure 7-4.
3.10 Is the cadmium concentration in the waste less than 2 mg per kg?
Obtain a sample of the waste as suggested in the sampling and
analysis (see Appendix 7-1). If the analysis shows the waste to contain
less than 2 mg per kg of cadmium, the site complies.
3.11 Is the pH of the soil/waste mixture 6.5 or greater at the time
of application?
Obtain a sample of the soil/waste mixture in the area of the field
that has received waste most recently (see Appendix 7-1). If t:he pH
is 6.5 or greater, or if it is close to this range and pH control is
being attempted, then the facility complies', continue to the
Polychlorinated Biphenyls section of this Criterion.
7-10
-------
FIGURE 7-3 ANNUAL CADMIUM APPLICATION DECISION GRAPH (2.0 Kg/hi) (EFFECTIVE UNTIL JUNE 30, 19841
Total
Waste
Applied
Dry
Tons/Ha
Dry Tons
cer Acre
100
44
90
3S7?
30
3TI
60
30
2T
40
ITT?
30 _
20
O"
10
Does Not
Comply
Carolies
10 20 30 40
50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140
Cadmium Concentration xq/kg (dry weight)
Note: If values are not on the chart then use the following equation
to calculate the allowable loading rate.
500
Cd concentration mg/xg
(dry weight)
allowable loading rate MT/HA
If the point falls clearly above the line, the facility does not
conply. If the point falls clearly below the line, the facility complies.
If however, the point falls on or near the line, it will be necessary to
judge the reliability and accuracy of the information used in making
the determination.
7-11
-------
FIGURE 74 ANNUAL CADMIUM APPLICATION DECISION GRAPH FOR TOBACCO, LEAFY VEGETABLES,
AND ROOT CROPS (0.5 Kg/hi) (DRY WEIGHT)
Total 50
Waste 21
1-
Dry 40
Metric ITS' "
Tons/Ha
Dry Tons
oer Acre 30
20
10
Does Mot
Comply
ConDlies
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 30 90 100 110 120 130 140
Cadmium Concentration
Note: If the point falls clearly above the line, the facility does not
comply. If the point falls clearly below the line, it complies.
However, if the point falls on or near the line, it will be necessary
to ]udge the reliability and accuracy of the information used in
making the determination. If values are not on the chart, then use the
following equation to calculate the allowable loading rate:
2,000
Cd concentration (mgAg)
(dry weight)
= allowable loading rate MT/HA
7-12
-------
4.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions (Table 7-2) (Polychlorinated
Biphenyls)
4.1 Is solid waste applied within one ureter of the surface of land
used for the production of animal feed?
(a) "Applied within one meter of the surface of land," refers to
waste being injected, spread on the surface, or plowed into the
soil. For the purpose of the Inventory, landfills are not
subject to these requirements regardless of cover depth.
(b) The land is to be considered "for the production of animal
feed" if the crop grown at the time of the Inventory is ordinarily
ingested by animals whose products are consumed by man, unless
there is an operations or marketing plan which precludes the crop
from this use. Specific information on the potential consumers
or uses of particular crops should be available through any of
the following sources:
the facility operator
the facility farmer or other local farmers
buyers such as grain dealers and co-ops
local Agricultural Extension Service
State Department of Agriculture
State University Agriculture Department
(c) If possible, perform the inspection during the growing season.
However, if no crop is being grown at the time of the Inventory,
the determination can be made based on information from the
operating plan, past use of the facility, crops grown in the
vicinity, or discussion with the owner, operator, or facility
fanner. If solid waste is not being applied to land used for
the production of animal feed, this Criterion does not apply,
continue to the next Criterion.
4.2 Is the waste incorporated into the soil?
"Incorporate into the soil" means the injection or mixing of
the solid waste into the soil. Some methods of incorporation
7-13
-------
consist of chisel plow injectors, plow furrow cover equipment on
tank trucks, surface spreading followed by plowing or discing; and
flexible hose attachments on moldboard or disc plows. If the
waste is incorporated into the soil, the facility complies; continue
to the direct ingestion section of this Criterion.
4.3 Does the waste contain concentrations of PCBs equal to or greater
than 10 ircg/kg?
(a) Obtain a sample, following the suggestions in the Sampling
and Analysis section of Appendix 7-1.
(b) If the lab analysis shows the PCB concentration to be less
than 10 mgAg? the facility complies. If it shows greater than
10 rag/kg, the facility does not comply.
(c) If the analysis shows PCBs to be greater than 50 ppm, other
OSEPA regulation applies. See CFR Part 761, Polychlorinated
Biphenyls.
4.4 Is the milk or animal feed monitored to assure that the PCBs
concentration is less than 1.5 mgAg (fat basis) in the milk or
less than 0.2 mg/kg in the animal feed?
To comply with this question, the animal feed and milk must be
monitored at the tine of sale or harvest. If no monitoring is done
or if analysis shows that the limits are exceeded, the facility does
not comply. If monitoring shows the crop to be within the limits,
the facility complies. If limits are exceeded, State or Federal
agencies should be consulted for guidance on disposition of the;
product.
7-14
-------
APPENDIX 7-1
SAMPLING AND ANALYSIS
7-15
-------
This Criterion will, in many cases, require sampling and analysis of
the solid waste, the soil, the soil/waste mixture, and occasionally the
crop. All of the analysis can be run from one sample of each material.
Sampling may be far more critical in obtaining representative results than
the method of analysis.
Solid Waste Sampling
Since it is difficult to get a truly representative sample of s.olid
waste materials, the following suggestions are offered:
utilize experienced personnel;
take a composite sample from various points;
take a large sample, mix well, and transfer to the lab samples
container; and
if in a mixing tank, sample where the waste is moving.
Experienced personnel are suggested, since there will be many
varying situations and it will be necessary to choose the most representative
sampling point.
Soil Sampling
The laboratory (e.g., agricultural extension service) can offer some
guidance on sample size and sampling techniques, however, the following
should always be followed:
(a) Divide fields into areas for sampling. Areas that have beein
used for different crops or that have a different soil appearance
should be sampled separately. Each sampling area should not exceed
ten acres.
(b) Composite samples should be taken from 15 to 20 locations. Each
sample should be taken to a depth of six inches or the plow depth.
Surface litter should be excluded.
(c) Mix the sample in a clean plastic bucket and place the quantity
required by the laboratory in the sample container.
(d) Do not sample unusual areas in the field such as low spots, wet
spots, old fence lines, or the edge of the field.
7-16
-------
Sampling the Soil/Waste Mixture
The soil/waste mixture can be sampled following the suggestions under
the Soil Sampling above if there is sufficient mixing. In many cases, mixing
will be limited, such as where waste is injected or applied to the surface
without incorporation. In such cases, it will be necessary to mix the
material with a spade or similar instrument in the selected sampling spots.
The material should be mixed to plow depth.
Laboratory Analysis
The laboratory selected should use accepted and approved techniques
for all the required analyses. Some sources of acceptable methods of
analysis are:
(a) Sampling and Analysis of Soils, Plants, Wastewaters, and Sludge,
Suggested Standardization and Methodology; North Central Region
Publication 230, Research Publication 170. (soil cadmium, waste
cadmium)
(b) Various Food and Drug Administration publications. (PCB analysis
for milk and animal feed)
(c) Manual of Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,
EPA, 1974. (general reference)
(d) "Methods of Soil Analysis," C.A. Black (American Society of
Agronomy), 1965. (soil pH and cation exchange capacity)
(e) Association of Official Analytical Chemists. (PCB analysis for
milk, animal feed, and waste material)
Methodology approved by these sources or by other widely accepted
groups or publications will be acceptable for the purpose of the Inventory.
Cumulative Cadmium Application
To determine the cumulative cadmium application, obtain an analysis of
the background soil cadmium concentration, soil cadmium concentration where
solid wastes have been applied, normal depth of tillage, and soil density.
(a) The background soil cadmium concentration refers to the cadmium
concentration prior to the addition of solid waste. Obtain a soil
7-17
-------
sample from areas in the vicinity of the facility with the sane soil
type which have not had solid waste applied to them. Such areas might
include fence rows, forested areas, or fields which have not received
solid waste (see Soil Sampling) .
(b) To determine the soil cadmium concentration (mgAg) / obtain a
representative sample from the zone of cultivation for analysis in
the area to which waste is to be applied (see Sampling the Soil/Waste
Mixture).
(c) To determine the normal depth of tillage, ask the operator what
cultivation practices are used in the area to which waste is applied.
To convert inches to the required meters, multiply by 0.025 (inches
x 0.025 = meters).
(d) The soil density (kg/ha) may be available from the Soil Conservation
Service or the local Agricultural Extension Service. In the absence
of information from these sources, a laboratory analysis must be
performed.
Calculate cumulative cadmium loading in kg/ha =
[Soil Cd Concentration (mgAg) -Background (mgAg) ] ([Soil density
(kg/m3)! [depth of tillage (m) ] [10,000 m2/ha]}
7-18
-------
Chapter 7
APPLICATION TO LAND USED FOR THE
PRODUCTION OF FOOD CHAIN CROPS
Criterion Compliance Decision
Q Complies
CD Does Not Comply
1. Is solid waste applied within one meter of the surface of land used
for food chain crops?
| | YES (Continue to 2)
Q NO (COMPLIES)
D The land is not used for the production of food chain crops
D Facility is a surface impoundment
D Facility is a landfill
2. Is there an operating plan which demonstrates how the crop is to be
distributed to preclude ingestion by humans and provides safeguards to
prevent possible health hazards resulting from alternative future uses
of the land?
YES (Continue to 3)
D Crop distribution is controlled to prevent ingestion by humans
DOperating plan describes safeguards against possible entry
of cadmium into food chain
Description
NO (Go to 5 )
3. Does a notice appear in the land records notifying any future owners
that the property has received solid waste at high cadmium application
rates and that food chain crops should not be grown, due to a possible
health hazard?
YES (Continue to 4)
NO (Does not comply - continue to 4)
7-19
-------
Chapter 7
APPLICATION TO LAND USED FOR THE
PRODUCTION OF FOOD CHAIN CROPS
(Continued)
4. Is the solid waste and soil mixture at pH 6.5 or greater at the time of
solid waste application or at the time the crop is planted, whichever
occurs later?
Q YES (COMPLIES)
[j NO (Does not comply - continue to 5)
5. Is the background soil pH greater than 6.5 or are there adequate
safeguards to assure that the soil pH will be maintained at 6.5
or higher whenever food chain crops are grown?
Q YES (Continue to 6)
D SCS maps or reports , or local agricultural extension service
D Laboratory analysis
DpH of soil is controlled whenever food chain crops are
grown.
Q] NO (Go to 7)
6. Does the soil cadmium concentration exceed 5 kg/ha with a CEC of
less than 5, or 10 kg/ha with a CEC of 5 to 15, or 20 kg/ha
with a CEC greater than 15?
Q YES (Does not comply)
Q NO (COMPLIES - Go to 8)
7. Has the cumulative application of cadmium exceeded 5 kg/ha?
D kg/ha cadmium in soil
nkg/ha cumulative application
Q YES (Does not comply - continue to 8)
r~]NO (COMPLIES - continue to 8)
8. Is the annual application rate of cadmium in excess of 2 kg/ha
(1.25 kg/ha after 1/1/84 and 0.5 kg/ha after 1/1/87)?
Dkg/ha/yr cadmium application rate (see Figure 7-3)
f~| YES (Does not comply - continue to 9)
QNO (Continue to 9)
7-20
-------
Chapter 7
APPLICATION TO LAND USED FOR THE
PRODUCTION OF FOOD CHAIN CROPS
(Continued)
9. If waste is applied to land used for the production of tobacco, leafy
vegetables or root crops for human consumption, is the cadmium loading
rate less than 0.5 kg/ha/year?
D Crop grown
(Continue to 10)
D Land is not used for production of these crops
D Cadmium loading is less 1±ian 0 . 5 kg/ha/yr
QNO (Does not comply - continue to 10)
10. Is the cadmium concentration in the waste less than 2 mgAg?
D mg/kg - cadmium concentration _
[~|YES (COMPLIES - continue to 11)
(Continue to 11)
11. Is the pH of the soil/waste mixture 6.5 or greater at the time of
application?
[~|YES (COMPLIES- continue to 12)
QNO (Does not comply - continue to 12)
12. Is the waste incorporated into the soil?
YES (COMPLIES)
NO (Continue to 13)
13. Does the waste contain concentrations of PCB's equal to or greater than
10 mgAg?
[~~|YES (Continue to 14)
D Analysis indicates 10 mgAg or more
Q] NO (COMPLIES)
n Analysis indicates less than 10 mgAg
DNo known significant source of PCB's
7-21
-------
Chapter 7
APPLICATION TO LAND USED FOR THE
PRODUCTION OF FOOD CHAIN CROPS
(Continued)
14. Is the milk or animal feed monitored to assure that the PCB concentrations
are less than 1.5 wg/kg (fat basis) in milk, or less than 0.2
in animal feed?
DYES (COMPLIES)
" '
0 (Does not comply)
7-22
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CHAPTER 8
FLOODPIAINS
1.0 Criterion and Definitions
§257.3-1 Ftoodptalns.
(a) Facilities or practices in
floodplains shall not restrict the flow of
the base flood, reduce the temporary
water storage capacity of the floodplain,
or result in washout of solid waste, so as
to pose hazard to human life, wildlife.
or land or water resources.
(b) As used in this section:
(1) "Based flood" means a flood that
has a 1 percent or greater chance of
recurring in any year or a flood of a
magnitude equalled or exceeded once in
100 years on the average over a
significantly long period.
(2) "Floodplain" means the lowland
and relatively flat areas adjoining inland
and coastal waters, including flood-
prone areas of offshore islands, which
are inundated by the base flood.
(3} "Washout" means the carrying
away of solid waste by waters of the
base flood.
2.0 Inventory Procedure
The determination of facility compliance for the purposes of
the Inventory consists of four parts:
(1) The elimination from further consideration (compliance) of
those floodplain facilities which due to certain operational
characteristics do not have a reasonable probability of posing
a hazard;
(2) The elimination from further consideration (compliance) of
facilities which are not located in the floodplain;
(3) The determination of whether a hazard is posed due to
restriction of flow and reduction of temporary water storage
capacity (flood hazard assessment);
8-1
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(4) The detBrminaticn of whether a hazard is posed due to washout
of the solid waste (washout hazard assessment).
For those facilities requiring a flood hazard assessment in part 3,
a ranking procedure for establishing priorities is included. Figure 8-1
presents the ccnpliance decision flow chart.
2.1 Farther Definitions
As used in this chapter:
(a) "Pose a hazard" means to place human life, wildlife, or land
or water resources in a position of jeopardy or risk, or to
place in a position of being adversely impacted, i.e., impairment
of use, reduction of value, or decreasing its ability to function
as part of the natural system;
(b) "Wildlife" means all unrestrained and uncultivated animals
that obtain the necessities of life from the natural environment
without substantial aid from man at any point during their life
cycle;
(c) "Land Resources" means the components of the land, including
but not limited to: uplands, wetlands and submerged lands;, soils,
agricultural lands, vegetation, minerals, beaches and dunes, and
amenities;
(d) "Water Resources" means those waters that are used or- may be
used in the future, for navigation, agriculture, recreation,
fisheries, power production, municipal or industrial water supply,
or the maintenance of natural biological communities; and
(e) "Headwaters" means the point on a non-tidal stream above
which the average annual flow is less than five cubic feet per
second.l
8-2
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3.0 Resolution of Decision Flow Chart Questions
3.1 Is the solid waste applied to the land surface and incorporated
into the soil for the purpose of beneficial utilization as a
soil conditioner or fertilizer?
Landspreading for the beneficial utilization of solid waste does
not normally change the elevation of the natural land surface and
therefore meets the flow restriction and temporary water storage
requirements of the Criterion. At those facilities that incorporate
the waste into the soil for the purpose of improving growth by
utilization as a soil conditioner or fertilizer, it may be assumed
that the erosion or washout potential is minimized by the enhanced
vegetation. Therefore, for the purpose of the Inventory, any
landspreading facility that satisfies the following requirements
complies with the Floodplain Criterion.
(a) The waste is incorporated into the soil in accordance with
the requirements of the criterion regarding application to land
used for the production of food chain crops.
(b) The waste is used for a soil conditioner or fertilizer to
improve vegetative growth.
(c) The waste disposal area is being used for vegetation at the
time of the Inventory or will be during the next crop season.
NOTE: A landspreading facility which does not satisfy the
above requirements should be evaluated for a washout
hazard.
3.2 Is the facility located in the 100-year floodplain?
Checking the following situations in the sequence outlined is
suggested as an initial step to determine whether a facility, or
portion thereof, is located in a floodplain. It is assumed that the
appropriate base and operating elevations of the facility are known.
(a) Where existing permits or operation applications state
that no portion of the facility is in the 100-year floodplain,
as defined by the Criterion, and the application is signed by
8-4
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a responsible official or party, then for the purposes of the
Inventory, the facility complies with the Criterion.
(b) Where existing 100-year floodplain naps indicate that no
portion of the facility is in the 100-year floodplain, as defined
by the Criterion, the facility complies with the Criterion.
Production and availability of floodplain maps will vary from
region to region. Maps are generally available from the following
sources.
State Flood Control Agencies or other departments
Federal Emergency Management Agency (HUD) Flood Insurance
Rate Map (FIRM) or Flood Hazard Boundary Map (FHBM) (an
example is shown in Figure 8-2).
Local and Regional Planning and Zoning Agencies
Soil Conservation Service - U.S. Department of Agriculture
U.S. Army Corps of Fjigineers
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Housing Administration (HUD)
U.S. Geological Survey
Bureau of Land Management - Department of the Interior
Bureau of Reclamation - Department of the Interior
Tennessee Valley Authority
River Basin Commissions and Special Flood Control Districts
Local and State agencies involved with public works
construction, i.e., bridges, culverts, highways, channel
improvements and urbanization studies.
(c) Where a facility is located a short distance between two
points where the 100-year flood level is known, a reasonably
accurate estimate of the flood level at the facility can be
made by interpolating between the two known points based on the
channel slope or the slope of other known floods through the
entire reach. The points might consist of any combination of
USGS gauge records, floodplain maps, historical records, or
levels predicted for other uses such as bridge and highway
design. This method should only be used where the entire
8-5
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r
niFEREMCE
MANIC
ELEVATION
(Ft er MOVDI
ELEVATION REFERENCE MARKS
DESCRIPTION OF tOCATIOM
U S Geological Survey standard brass disk stamped tnm 1fl34 ' set in top of concrete pott
flush with ground located in the city perk 4 7 feet north of th« eerier (me of Third Street. 14»
feet Met of the center U*ie of Bullet Street
Top of southwestern bolt on the top flange of fire hydrant at northeast corner of the in-
tersection of Fifth Street end Massachusetts-Street
Top of railroad gpike protecting from north tide of power pole, approximately one foot
above the ground, located »t northwest cornet ot ,mera«etion ot Seventh Street and
Massachuaetts Street
Top of west bolt on the tup flange ot die hydrant at southeast corner of the intersection of
Wilder Street and Butler Street
Top of southeastern bolt on the top Mange o( fire hydrant at touthweet corner of intersection
of State Street and Sutler Street
Top of southwestern boll on the top Mange of ttte hydtsnt at touiheaat corner ol intersection
of Railroad Street and Butler Street
Chiseled crovt on east and of south headweU ot Second Street ov*f the Tributary 10 Puckets
Run Creek
Top of railroad iDtke head protecting from north tide at power ooM approximately one tool
above the ground located at southeest corner of intersection of Can villa Street »nd the
Missouri Kaftmai Texas railroad track*
KEY TO MAP
500-Ym Hood Boundary -
100-V... Flood Boundary -
FLOOD FRINGE
100-Yaar Flood Boundary -
500 y... Flood Boundary ~
Approximate 100-Yaaf
Flood Boundary
Croaa Saction Lin*
Elevation R«far«nca Mark
Rlv.r Mila
RM7X
Ml 5
NOTES TO USER
Boundaries of th« floodways were computed at cross sections and
interpolated between cross section* The floodways were based on
hydraulic considerations without regard to economic, legal, or
political factors
This map w*a prepared to support minimum flood plain manage-
ment regulations, it may not show all areas subject to flooding in
the community or all pUnimetnc features outside special Hood
hazard areas
For adjoining map panels, see separately printed Index to Map
Panels
FIGURE 8-2 FLOOD BOUNDARY AND FLOODWAY MAP
8-6
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floodplain between the two points is fairly straight and
uniform with respect to dimension and roughness. If the floodplain
is not uniform, then this type of estimate should only be used as
a quick indicator. If it can be verified with a conveyance
calculation, it nay be assumed to be accurate enough for the
Inventory.
(d) Where the facility is located in a small unmapped drainage
area, and it is apparently not in the backwater area of the
floodplain of another larger drainage area, the facility complies
if the contributing drainage area in acres as determined from
topographic maps is less than:
43,560 T- Average annual runoff in inches (Figure 8-3) l
If the contributing drainage area is less than the figure derived
from the equation, then it is considered a headwaters area with
an average annual flow of less than 5 cubic feet per second. For
For the purposes of the Inventory, a facility in a headwaters area
is in compliance with this Criterion.
In the western portion of the country this might not be
applicable because of highly irregular flows. Check with the
District Office of the Corps of Engineers to determine whether
this method is applicable or whether a "median" runoff rather
than "average" runoff should be used.
(e) When none of the other determination methods apply, it is
necessary to make an estimate of the 100-year flood level at the
facility location. This estimating requires experience and
knowledge of floodplain hydraulics and flood flow determination.
The first step is to determine the flood flew at the facility
location. The flood flow is then used to estimate the flood
level. If the State Solid Waste Agency does not have experienced
staff in this area, it is suggested that these estimates and
some of the following determinations be made through consulting
with one of the following:
8-7
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The State Agency charged with flood protection or floodplain
management;
Any of the map source agencies previously listed with the
necessary expertise; or
A qualified professional firm.
The following guidance is provided for making estimates of
flood flow and level.
3.2.1 Guidance for Determining the 100-year Flood Flew at the
Facility Location
Determination of flood levels frequently requires that the flood
flow be known at the facility location before the level can be estimated.
Listed in order of preference, the following methods or sources can be
used to obtain the flood flow:
(a) Existing discharge-probability analyses in the vicinity that
may have been performed by State agencies or the USGS;
(b) The U.S. Soil Conservation PL 566 watershed plans;
(c) State Departments of Transportation or local public works
offices, where there has been major construction in the vicinity;
(d) Procedures described in "Guidelines for Determining Flood Flow
Frequency," Bulletin #17A, Water Resources Council, June 1977;2
(e) Recently calibrated regional prediction methods, usually
regression equations which are based on factors such as watershed
areas and stream slopes. These are available for a number of
States and are available from State water agencies or possibly
as technical manuals produced by the USGS;
(f) Transfer methods based on ratios of drainage areas, provided
there is similarity between the two drainage areas and their
temporary storage characteristics; and
(g) Interpolations between known flood flows from points upstream
and downstream.
8-9
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3.2.2 Guidance for Determining the 100-year Flood Level at the
Facility Location
Once the flood flow is known at the location of the facility, a
muter of methods nay be used to predict the flood level (disregarding
any effects due to the facility).
Suggested procedures are:
(a) Flood profile computational methods, such as the Corps of
Engineers HEC-2 (a computer model for predicting profiles of various
flood frequencies);3
(b) Step backwater analysis conducted through a series of cross-
sectional analyses between two points of known flood levels,
performed when downstream conditions might control flood profiles
at the facility location; and
(c) Where downstream conditions do not affect the flood level at
the facility, simple conveyance calculations or normal depth
computations, such as Mannings Equation, may be undertaken at the
facility cross-section only.
NOTE: Where possible, the constants used to predict the flood level
by the above methods sould be checked against a known
historical event, or the flood level should be predicted
using constants calibrated to an historical event.
Coirpare the estimated flood level with the elevation of the
facility. If no portion of the facility is below the 100-year flood
level, then the facility complies with the Criterion.
3.3 Does the facility restrict the flow of the base flood or reduce
the temporary water storage capacity so as to pose a hazard to
human life, wildlife or land or water resources?
This determination, when conducted for a specific site, is; very
complex, costly, and should only be made by a qualified professjional.
Therefore, for purposes of the Inventory, the approach for satisfying
this decision flew chart question involves:
8-10
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Review of several special cases to see if the facility
fits one of these cases, thereby cotplying with this portion
of the Criterion,
Ranking of the remaining facilities prior to an assessment
of the flood hazard potential for each facility,
Perform a flood hazard assessment (e.g., does the facility
pose a hazard to human life, wildlife, or land or water
resources).
3.3.1 Special Cases
Case 1 - If a facility is located in a State where the equivalent
permit or review procedures have considered a facility's flood
alteration impacts, and it has been concluded that the facility does
not pose a hazard to human life, wildlife, or land or water resources,
then the facility complies with this portion of the Criterion. This
includes facility siting decisions made in accordance with regulatory
floodway adoption procedures of the National Flood Insurance Program.
Assuming that such an assessment procedure exists at the State or local
level, the question can be resolved by checking the records. It may
be necessary to contact other State or local agencies involved in
floodplain analysis.
Case 2 - If a facility has an individual permit for the discharge
of dredged or fill material (Section 404, Clean Water Act) and the
review of the permit application included a flood hazard assessment
equivalent to the assessment required in this section, and the facility
is in compliance with the permit, then the facility complies with this
portion of the Criterion. Either the Army Corps of Engineers or the
State may have the 404 permit authority for a particular area. It
will be necessary to consult with the Corps or the State 404 permit
authority in order to determine if the flood hazard assessment is
equivalent and to check on the facility's compliance with the permit.
If the facility is not in compliance with its 404 permit, it will be
necessary to make the assessment of the potential flood hazard
outlined later.
8-11
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Case 3 - If a facility has already filled the floodplain area, it
enooitpasses to a level equal to or greater than the base flood height,
or if it is corpletely diked to the base flood level, then continued
vertical expansion and operation will not further alter the base flood
flow or storage capacity so as to pose a hazard, and it may be assumed
to comply with this part of the Criterion.
Where current information on the level of the facility is
available, the question can be resolved by conparing the level of the
facility or dikes to the base flood height. Where no information on
the level of the facility is available, a trip to the facility will be
required. It may help to look for local information on past floods,
as a facility inundated by a lesser flood will obviously be inundated by
the base flood, and a facility that is above a flood of greater
magnitude (such as a 500-year flood) will also be above the base flood.
This information will probably be in the form of local records,
personal testimony, or watermarks on structures or vegetation. Where
it is difficult to visualize the flood height, or a more accurate
determination is necessary, on-site surveying may be required.
Case 4 - If the level of the facility is below the land surface
grade of the floodplain (e.g., in a borrow pit or quarry), then the
facility will not restrict the flood flow and it is unlikely to
reduce the water storage capacity so as to pose a hazard, and it
therefore complies with this part of the Criterion. Ihe level of the
facility is the top of the waste or dike, whichever is highest.
Where current information is available, this can be resolved in
the office by referring to the records to determine the facility level
relative to the land surface grade. Where the necessary information
is not available or up to date, a trip to the facility will be required.
A visual check of the facility level should be sufficient. Where a
more accurate determination is necessary, on-site surveying may be
required. Another possibility would be the analysis of aerial
photography, if both available and recent.
8-12
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Note: All facilities in the 100-year floodplain must also protect
against washout of solid waste. Since surface iirpoundments
need dikes to protect from washout by the 100-year flood, they
cannot be below-grade. On the other hand, landfills located
in the floodway fringe and which are below grade might meet
the washout hazard requirement by covering the waste after
each day's operation and protecting the surface as soon as
each section (including intermediate levels)" is completed. A
landspreading facility which does not meet the requirements in
Section 3.1 of this chapter will need to be evaluated for
washout. If the facility uses dikes to protect from washout,
then refer to Case 3.
Case 5 - If a facility is located in a floodplain where the stream
or river is contained within its channel during the 100-year flood by
a system of dikes, levees, berms, revetments, or other structures such
that the floodplain is no longer subject to flooding, then the facility
may be assumed to comply with this part of the Criterion.
Case 6 - If it can be determined by using any of the computational
methods of Section 3.2.2, or equivalent procedures, that the base
flood level may be raised more than one foot by the location and
operation of the facility, then for the purpose of the Inventory,
it may be assumed that the facility does pose a hazard and does not
comply with this portion of the Criterion. A lesser change in the
predicted level does not mean that the facility complies, as a flood
hazard may still be posed. (The one-foot increase in the base flood
level is the maximum increase allowed in the National Flood Insurance
Program by FEMA.)
3.2.2 Banking of Facilities Not Covered by the Special Cases
Any facility located in the 100-year floodplain restricts the
flow of the base flood or reduces the temporary water storage
capacity of the floodplain to some degree. Therefore, the question
is whether the reduction or restriction "poses a hazard to human
life, wildlife, or land or water resources." The procedures discussed
8-13
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here are intended to provide guidance for the best possible resolution
of the question.
Since assessing the flood hazard potential for a facility is
complex and costly, it is necessary to establish a priority system.
(a) The first priority will be for those facilities within the
boundaries of (1) a regulatory floodway as adopted under the
National Flood Insurance Program of the Federal Emergency
Management Agency, HUD, or (2) a "regulatory" floodway or
equivalent mapped by a State or local government or other
organization. Refer to Figures 8-2 and 8-4 for the floodway
delineation.
(b) The remaining floodplain facilities are given priorities
according to their relative flood hazard potential as determined
by their floodplain and facility characteristics. Table 8-1
shows how these characteristics affect flood hazard potential.
Since these characteristics are so interrelated and site-
specific, no attempt was made to quantify them. The higher the
hazard potential, the higher the assessment priority.
3.3.3 Flood Hazard Assessment
Qice prioritization is completed, an assessment of the flood
hazard must be made in order to resolve the Criterion question. The
assessor should consider the following factors:
(a) base flood characteristics;
flow
velocity
level
cross-sectional areas of the floodplain
(b) floodplain topography;
(c) floodplain hydrogeology;
(d) facility characteristics;
type (e.g., landfills, surface impoundments, landspreading)
size (cross-sectional area of channel occupied by facility;
volume - acreage and depth)
8-14
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TABLE 8-1
FLOOD HAZARD RANKING
Floodplain
Characteristics
Increasing Flood Hazard Potential
Low
High
(1) Location in the
floodplain
(2) Size of watershed
flood fringe
small
floodway
large
(3) Shape of the
floodplain
(4) Percentage of the
floodplain cross-
section area occupied
by the facility
(5) Volume of facility
(acreage and depth)
(6) Flood flow velocity
broad, shallow
narrow, v-shaped
small percent
small
low velocity
large percent
large
high velocity
8-16
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location in the floodplain (e.g., floodway or floodway
fringe)
washout prevention methods
impacts on flooding (e.g., restricts flood flow)
(e) natural resources in and adjacent to the floodplain (i.e.,
wetlands, tirriber resources, soil, wildlife habitat, etc.);
(f) land use in and adjacent to the floodplain.
The flood hazard assessment can be made in-house if the
professional expertise is available. Where the necessary e:xpertise
is not available, technical assistance should be solicited from the
State agency charged with flood protection or floodplain management.
If the State agencies are not in a position to provide the necessary
technical assistance, there are several Federal agencies that may be
consulted.
Soil Conservation Service (USDA) - provides technical
assistance in determining flood hazards, mainly through
the Floodplain Management Assistance Program.
Army Corps of Engineers - provides interpretation of
floodplain data, develops new data, and provides guidance
on assessing and minimizing flood hazards through the
Flood Plain Management Services Program.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (USDC) -
provides floodplain information and interpretive assistance
for specific points on larger rivers.
Federal Insurance Administration (HUD)- conducts flood
hazard studies (Flood Insurance Study Reports) for select
areas, also maintains a listing of qualified consulting
engineers.
Geological Survey (USDI) - User Assistance Centers provide
information on flood characteristics, interpretive information
on flood frequency relationships, and identifies areas of
potential flood hazard.
8-17
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Bureau of Reclamation (USDI) - flood hydrologists at regional
offices can provide flooding information and interpretive
assistance for locations associated with Bureau projects.
Fish and Wildlife Service (USDI) - provides expertise on
wildlife and habitat resource, preservation, and maintenance.
Tennessee Valley Authority - provides technical assistance
and flood data for the Tennessee Valley Watershed.
Delaware River Basin Commission - provides interpretive
assistance and flood data for the Delaware basin.
Susguehanna River Basin Commission - provides general
information and guidance on floodplain management.
Additional sources of assistance and information are
other river basin commissions, flood control districts,
and regional and local planning agencies.
Where insufficient assistance is available from governmental
agencies, the services of a qualified professional should be ob'tained.
When the flood hazard assessment concludes that the facility
poses a hazard, it does not comply with the Criterion. All facilities,
complying or not, must still be evaluated for their washout hazard.
3.4 Is the facility protected from washout by the base flood so as
not to pose a hazard to human life, wildlife or land or water
resources?
The criteria objective is to prevent any solid waste from being
carried away by waters of the base flood. Therefore, to comply with
this part of the Criterion, a facility must prevent washout by the
base flood. A facility protected against inundation is not
necessarily protected against washout of the waste. A facility can
be inundated without washing out, and washed out without being
inundated. The former occurs when waste is covered or held by
vegetated soil, and the base flood inundates the surface but does not
erode and wash out waste. The latter can occur when the facility is
8-18
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diked or the waste covered up to the 100-year level, but the dike or
covering is insufficient protection and the waste is eroded and
carried away.
3.4.1 Special Cases
Two cases may be readily resolved without requiring a washout
hazard assessment.
Case 1 - If a facility is located in a State (or has a 404 permit),
where the equivalent permit, inspection, or review procedures require
the facility to be protected from washout by the base flood, and the
State, or 404 permit process, has determined that the facility is
adequately protected, then the facility complies with the washout part
of the Criterion. The question is resolved by checking the records
of the facility.
Case 2 - If a facility suffers from washout by floods of lesser
magnitude (such as a 50-year flood) than the base flood, then it can
be concluded that the facility will also wash out in the base flood,
and thereby does not comply with this portion of the Criterion.
Determination of washout by lesser floods can be made by referring
to past inspection records or a field check of the site for visible
evidence of washout. Erosion due to surface runoff should not be
considered evidence of washout due to flooding.
3.4.2 Washout Hazard Assessment
Where there has been no equivalent assessment or no evidence of
washout by lesser floods, an evaluation of the washout protection
will be necessary. This can be done on an in-house basis, in
consultation with another State agency, or through the services of a
consultant. Also, the Soil Conservation Service, USDA, might provide
technical assistance in analyzing erosion and washout protection
methods. Other Federal agencies, such as the U.S. Geological Survey
and Army Corps of Engineers might also assist with such an evaluation.
The assessment of a facility's washout hazard potential should
consider the following factors:
8-19
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(1) types and effectiveness of washout protection used in each
area of the facility below the 100-year flood level;
dikes
levees
berms
flexible linings
vegetative cover
riprap
diversion of high velocity flows around the facility
change in soil matrix by chemical alteration
(2) flood flow velocity; using a flood flow velocity of at least
2.5 tines the average velocity over the entire floodplain cross-
section for those portions of the facility in the floodway and
a rainimum value of 1.0 times the average velocity over the entire
floodplain corss-section for those portions of the facility in
the floodway fringe.
That is: v = Q/A where
v = average velocity
Q = 100-year flood flow (cfs)
A = cross-sectional area of floodplain
Matrices conparing the types of washout protection with different
flood flow velocities by showing the efficiencies of each type at.
different velocities are available in references 4 and 5. These
matrices can be used to help evaluate the adequacy of protection for
each facility.
If a washout hazard assessment determines that a facility is
protected from washout from the base flood, then the facility complies
with this part of the Criterion.
8-20
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4.0 References
1. Title 33, Navigation and Navigable Waters, Chapter II, U.S. Army
Corps of Engineers, July 1977.
2. "Guidelines for Determining Flood Flow Frequency," Bulletin No. 174,
United States Water Resources Council, 2120 L Street, N.W., Washington,
D.C. 20037, Revised, June 1977.
3. "HEC-2", The Hydrologic Engineering Center, U.S. Army Corps of
Engineers, Davis, California, November 1976.
4. "Design of Stable Channels with Flexible Linings," Hydraulic Engineering
Circular No. 15, October 1975, U.S. Department of Transportation,
Federal Highway Administration, (US<3>0 #050-002-00101-9).
5. "Shore Protection Manual," U.S. Army Coastal Engineering Research
Center, Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers, 1975. USGPO,
Stock #008-022-0007-1, 3 Volumes.
8-21
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Chapter 8
FLOODPIAINS
Criterion Compliance Decision
Q] Conplies
Q Does Not Comply
1. Is the solid waste applied to the land surface and incorporated into
the soil for the purpose of beneficial utilization as a soil conditioner
or fertilizer?
Q YES (Conplies)
D Waste incorporated into the soil in accordance with requirements
of Section 257.3-5
D Waste used as a soil conditioner or fertilizer
Q Disposal area being used (or will be used next season) for
vegetation
Q NO (Continue to 2)
2. Is the facility located in the 100-year floodplain?
YES (Continue to 3)
Stated in permit or operation applications
State floodplain designation
D
D
D Federal floodplain designation: agency ___
D Interpolation between two known points in the 100-year floodplain
D Computations of flood flow and flood level
NO (Complies)
Does the facility restrict the flow of the base flood or reduce the
temporary water storage capacity so as to pose a hazard to human
life, wildlife, or land or water resources?
Special cases:
D Facility located in a state where equivalent review or permit
procedures have considered flood alteration impacts
D Facility has a 404 permit with an equivalent flood hazard
assessment section and is in compliance with the permit
D Facility has filled floodplain or is diked up to or above
base flood level
D Facility is below floodplain grade
8-22
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Chapter 8
FLOODPIAINS
(continued)
D Facility located in a floodplain where the channel is diked
to contain the base flood
D Facility increases base flood level more than 1.0 foot
Priority of facility:
D Regulatory floodway area - priority 1
a High flood hazard potential area (Table 1-1) - priority 2
D Low flood hazard potential area (Table 1-1) - priority 3
Factors considered in flood hazard potential assessment:
Base Flood characteristics:
Floodplain topography:
Floodplain hydrogeology:
Facility characteristics:
Natural resources in and adjacent to the floodplain:
Land use in and adjacent to the floodplain:
j--j YES (Does not comply - Continue to 4)
D NO (Continue to 4)
4. Is the facility protected from washout by the base flood so as not to
pose a hazard to human life, wildlife, or land or water resources?
Factors considered for washout protection:
Types and Efficiency Protection:
D Dike or levee
D Berm
D Flexible linings
D Vegetative cover
D Riprap
D Diversion of surface flow
CH Change in soil matrix
D Other
D None
D Flood flow velocity
8-23
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Chapter 8
FLOODPIAINS
(continued)
YES (Complies)
D State washout assessment or 404 permit
D Site analysis of washout protection
NO (Does not conply)
D Washout by flood of lesser magnitude than the 100-year flood
D Site analysis of washout protection
8-24
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APPENDIX A
OPEN DUMP INVENTORY REPORTING FORM
A-l
-------
F~*M EPA.2 ^r,tLlafJ- -/ ^ /OyL/l/^ £lf>f\rn\//>) U.S. DEPARTMENT Or COMMERCE
(».*»-T»> «-?£/Or££zT Z.<3 CXAfO rlf>Proy<-f-l su«e»u or THE CENSUS
<^ ' ' ACTING AS COULCCTINC AGENT FOR
OPEN DUMP INVENTORY REPORTING FORM «V.«OH«NT*L PROTECTS AOEHCV
X Section 1 - GENERAL INFORMATION '*J
1. Dot* of determination M .
Enter month dav nontn
and yeor
Day
Year
: . . ' ' . ' , ' - .,y.r -
2a. U this on updot* of « ...-»« ^ ,, ~v -._i-^
previous form? - ,1 I'v.. .. « i ijft J*. * . '. ...
Xlflrk(X)on - / 'CJ Yes 2^3 No |, , -
.2b. Is this form boing »tibmitt«d - , -~ --^*-^^-^"- * .^...x, ...,.,. ,
to r.mov.th. facility from , [j Yes 2 Q No 1' . ,-
th* opon dump inventory? ' ' ' '.,,»*-. ,
3.. Facility " Suto
identification
4. .EPA Surface Impound* , '
m»nt Assessment No.
If applicable
5. State Facility
Identification Number
If opp/i cable
6. Name of
facility
7. Facility location
'
State
-
County
Cnty/Clty
Place
Place
'
Assigned Site No. Assorted Facility No.
Category
Site
1m
pound merit
Street, road, or other location description
City, town, or place . State
County name
8. Coordinates of g
facility location
Latitude
>efrees Minutes Seconds
Longitude
Degrees
9. Other legal description I Range i Township Section
If applicable \ { {
i i i
10. Land owner
!1. Operator
1
ZIP code
t-
(Incites Seconds
Name
Ma ilin« address
City, town, or place State
ZIP code
Name
Mailing address
City, town, or place State ZIP code
<
i
r
A-2
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Section 1 - GENERAL INFORMATION - Continued j
t2. Typo of facility
Mark (X) one
13. Primary types of
waste received
. '
1Q Landfill
. 2 [ ] Surface impoundment
' sQ Land spreading
1 ^Municipal solid waste
2 Q Domestic sewage sludge
3 Q Industrial solid waste
4 Q Agricultural solid waste
s Q Mining solid waste
Section II - NONCOMPLIANCE WITH
4 Q Other - Explain/
6 Q Other - Explain/
FEDERAL CRITERIA
Indicate noncompliance , . _.._-. ;, , ,-^_. .-. :.. -? "'...
with one or more of the
following categories
Mark (X) each category
for which a detenrninati'on
of noncomp/ionce was
/node.
01 [""] Floodplains
02 Q Endangered species
03 Q Surface water
0^4 (~~| Ground water
05 Q Application to food-chain cropland
os [~~l Disease
07 f~l Air
X*
09 [~l Gases
10 Q Fires
11 Q Bird/aircraft hazard
12 I I Access
oa f~l Safety
Section 111 - RESPONSIBLE STATE OFFICIAL
Name
Ajency
Telephone
Area code j Number
I
t
Hailing address /NumOer end street;
City
State
ZIP code
Comments
A-3
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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
A. INTRODUCTION This form is to be used by States in reporting to the Environmental Protection
Agency (EPA) solid waste disposal facilities not in compliance with the "Criteria for Classification of
Solid Waste Disposal Facilities and Practices" (the Criteria) published as 40 CFR 257 on September 13,
1979. A form is to be submitted to EPA for each facility evaluated and found not to be in compliance
with any provision of the Criteria. The names of those facilities submitted will be published by EPA as
the open dump inventory required by Section 4005 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
1976 (P.L. 94580). This form covers solid waste disposal facilities as defined and described in the
Criteria with exceptions as delineated in the Criteria.
B. COMPOSITION OF FORM - Form EPA-2 is composed of three sections. Section I is to provide general
information about the date of determination, the location of the facility, the owner and operator of the
facility, and the type of facility in terms of the method of disposal and primary types of waste received.
Section II is for reporting the category of the Criteria for which the facility does not comply.
Section III is for the name and address of the State official responsible for the determination that the
facility does not comply with the Criteria.
SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS
These specific instructions and guidelines are to assist you in completing the three sections of this form.
.Each instruction is related to a specific section and item of the form. For definitions see part D.
NOTE Work on completing this form should not begin until all procedural and instructional materials
have been thoroughly reviewed.
Section I - GENERAL INFORMATION
Item 1, Date of determination Enter numerics indicating the day on which the facility is evaluated
against the "Criteria for Classification of Solid Waste Disposal Facilities and Practices."
Example - February I, 1980 should be coded as -
Month Day Year
Item 2a, Is this an update of a previous form?
Mark (X) in the "No" box if the facility has not been evaluated previously.
Mark (X) in the "Yes" box if the facility has been evaluated previously AND an EPA Disposal Facility
Inventory form has been submitted previously for the facility. The EPA Facility Identification number
entered in item 3 of the update form must be the same as the number entered on the initial form.
Update forms may be submitted to update or correct any item(s) in Sections I and II. If this is an update
of a previous form, complete items 1, 2, 3, and 6 in Section I; Section III; and the items which are being
corrected or updated. Use the comments section if necessary.
Item 2b, Is this form being submitted to remove the facility from the open dump inventory? If "Yes,"
complete items 3 through 11 and Section III on the reverse side. If "No," follow the instructions given for
item 2a above.
A-4
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Item 3, Facility Identification Number A master listing of facility identification numbers should be
established before beginning inventory activities and maintained for the duration. The State, county, and
place codes can be found in your reference manual. If a facility crosses county lines, use your best judge-
ment in assigning it to one of the counties. Use the comments section to explain which counties are
involved and the reason for coding the facility to the chosen county. If a facility is not located wholly or
partially within the boundaries of a place listed in your reference manual, enter five zeroes (00000) in the
place codes boxes. If the place code in your reference manual is a 4-digit code, enter it in the first four of
the five boxes allowed for the place code.
EXAMPLE of encoding of EPA facility identification number for a facility located in Autaugaville,
Alabama. Note the 4-digit code entered in the first four boxes of the place code.
Example A
(A
EXAMPLE
Example B
(-*
-
State
labama)
0
2
of facility
-
State
vlabama)
0
1
Counry
(Autauga) Place Assigned Site No. Assigned Facility No.
0
0
1 1115
identification number for a facility not located in a place
County
(Autauga) Place Assigned Site No. Ass gned Facility No.
0
0
1 00000
To ensure that each facility evaluated within the State has a unique number, the responsible State official
should assign site and facility numbers sequentially for the duration of the inventory. The site number and
facility numbers should be assigned in sequential order beginning with 0001 and 001 respectively.
Example . For three facilities operating at one site In Autaugaville, Alabama,
the EPA facility identification numbers should be assigned as follows.
State
County
Place
1
1
1
5
Place
1
1
1
5
Place
1
1
1
5
Assigned Site No. Assigned Facility No.
A-5
-------
Item 4, EPA Surface Impoundment Assessment Number (SIA number) - A list of SIA impoundment
numbers will be supplied to the States when they are available. If this facility is a surface impoundment
which has been selected from the list of surface impoundments assessed for the U.S. EPA's Office of Water
Supply, enter its SIA number here.
Example of an SIA impoundment number for an impoundment located in Autaugaville, Alabama.
Example
State
Cnty/City
Pl«ct
If not applicable, enter "NA" as shown
Example''
State Cnty/City
Cattfory
Sit*
Impoundment
Catejory
Item 5, State Facility Identification Number - This number is the number, if any, used by the State to
identify the facility. Inclusion of this item is intended to provide those States which have established a
system of identification codes with a cross reference to the EPA identification system. Entries should begin
in the first box, regardless of length. If the State does not have an identification number, enter NA in the
first two boxes.
Item 6, Name of facility - This item refers to the legal name of the facility. If there is no legal name, enter
the name assigned for State record keeping purposes.
Sixty (60) entry spaces on two lines have been allowed for facility name. Reasonable abbreviations are
acceptable. Leave one space between each word in the site name. The first line should end in a complete
word.
Exomple - The Greater Autauga Area Sanitary Landfill (42 total spaces)
Acceptable
T
S
H
A
E
N
I
G
T
R
A
E
R
A
Y
T
E
L
R
A
N
A
D
U
7
I
I
A
L
U
L
G
A
A
R
E
A
Not acceptable
T
A
H
R
E
Y
G
L
R
A
E
N
A
D
T
T
E
I
R
L
L
A
U
T
A
U
G
A
A
R
E
A
S
A
N
I
T
In cases where a facility has no legal name or name of record (e.g., an unauthorized/promiscuous dump or a
facility used by private concern), enter a description sufficient to identify the circumstances.
£xomp/e
p
R
0
M
I
S
C
U
0
U
S
D
U
M
P
X
Y
Z
D
E
M
0
L
I
T
I
0
N
I
N
C
D
U
M
P
N
0
3
A-6
-------
ham 7, Facility location
Street or road - If the facility is not describable in conventional mailing address terms, provide a descrip-
tion sufficient to locate the facility on a county or city map. For example "2.5 miles North on Hampton
Road after the intersection of Route 255." Only 60 spaces are allowed for the street/location description
so descriptions may require the use of reasonable abbreviations.
City, town, or place If the facility is not located in a city or town (see list of places), enter the name by
which the area is commonly known locally or in State records.
State See list of State abbreviations in reference material.
ZIP code - See list of ZIP codes for your State in reference material. If the facility is not described in
terms of a mailing address enter "No ZIP" in the first five (5) boxes.
County name ->- Be certain the county name you enter here is the same county for which you entered the
three-digit code in the EPA identification number (item 3).
Examp/e A - Street address format
Street, road, or other location description
1
4
3
2
L
I
C
K
S
K
I
L
L
E
T
R
D
Examp/e S Other location description when street address is unavilable
Street, road, or other location description
2
P
.
A
5
S
T
M
I
R
T
N
E
0
R
2
T
2
H
5
0
N
H
A
M
P
T
0
N
R
D
NOTE This location description lists the name of the road which gives access to the
facility as well as distance and direction from a reference point.
If the facility is located in a place included in the list of places in your reference
materials, enter the name as it appears on that list. Also enter the 2-character State name
abbreviation and ZIP code as they appear in the reference materials.
Exomp/e C
City, town, or place
State ZIP code
F
U
L
T
0
N
C
I
T
Y
3
6
0
9
8
If a facility is located in an unincorporated town or in an area that has a commonly used
name such as a post office name, that name should be entered.
Exomp/e D
City, town, or place
State
T
A
L
L
P
I
N
E
S
ZIP code
3
6
0
4
7
A-7
-------
Item 8, Coordinates of facility location Facility coordinates may be determined using U.S. Geological
Survey'quad maps, county highway maps available from the State department of transportation or State
department of highways, or State or local survey maps.
Example A site in Alabama might have coordinates such as -
Degrees Minutes Seconds Octrees
Latitude
Minutes Seconds
Longitude
Item 9, Other legal description - In some States, facility locations are described in terms of range, town-
ship, and section. If this is the case in your State, supply the appropriate codes for range, township, and
section. Because these codes are not of uniform length in every State, the boxes have not been subdivided
to indicate .character positions.
EXAMPLE
i Range
I 02E
iTownship
} 08N
(Section
1
1
i - - - -
' 30
Item 10, Land owner
Name If the owner is a unit of government, the administering agency, bureau, office, etc., should be
entered as well as the name of the government.
Three examples of Land Owner Names are -
Name
D
E
P
T
0
F
S
A
N
I
T
A
T
N
A
U
T
A
U
G
A
C
I
T
Y
Name
U
S
A
R
M
Y
i
D
E
P
T
0
F
D
E
N
F
E
S
E
Name
D
E
P
T
0
F
N
A
T
U
R
A
L
R
E
S
0
U
R
C
E
S
A
L
Mailing address Enter the mailing address most commonly used, including 2-character State name
abbreviation and ZIP code as they appear in the reference materials.
Two examples of mailing addresses are -
Mailing address
P
0
B
0
X
1
1
4
5
City, town, or place
State ZIP code
A
U
T
A
U
G
A
V
I
L
L
E
6047
Mailing address
1
1
2
3
S
T
A
T
E
0
F
F
I
C
E
B
City, town, or place
A
U
T
A
U
G
A
V
I
L
L
E
U
I
L
State
A
L
D
I
N
G
ZIP code
3
6
0
4
7
A-8
-------
Item 11, Operator's name and address Use the instructions for item 10. If the operator is the same as
owner, enter "SAME" in the first 4 blocks of the name line.
Item 12, Type of facility Every facility should be classified as a landfill, surface impoundment, or
land spreading/facility. If you are uncertain of the type of facility classify it as "Other" and write a brief
explanation. A separate form is to be submitted for each facility, even where more than one facility is
located on the same site.
Item 13, Primary types of waste received Mark (X) the predominant "type or types of waste" received
at the facility.
Section II - NONCOMPLIANCE WITH FEDERAL CRITERIA
Indicate which categories of the Criteria for which this facility does not comply.
Section III - RESPONSIBLE STATE OFFICIAL
The State official responsible for determining noncompliance with the Criteria is indicated in this section.
In general the form should be signed by the director of the State solid waste program or a higher level
official.
'. DEFINITIONS
Facility Any land and appurtenances thereto used for the disposal of solid wastes.
Site Land on which one or more solid waste disposal facilities are located.
Landfill A facility for the disposal of solid wastes involving the placement of solid wastes on or into the
land surface, and usually involving compaction and covering of the disposed solid wastes.
Surface Impoundment A natural topographic depression, artificial excavation, or like arrangement used
for disposal of solid wastes, especially liquids and semi-solids. Also referred to as ponds, pits, lagoons, and
basins.
Land Spreading Application of solid waste onto land and/or incorporation into the surface soil, including
the use of such waste as a fertilizer or soil conditioner.
Municipal Solid Waste Discarded materials resulting from usual (residential and commercial) community
activities.
Domestic Sewage Sludge Any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste generated from a municipal or community
wastewater treatment plant.
Industrial Solid Waste Discarded material resulting from manufacturing activities.
Agricultural Solid Waste Discarded material resulting from agricultural activities.
Mining Solid Waste Discarded material resulting from mining and milling activities.
County or County Equivalent Following are the primary political and administrative divisions:
1. In 48 States counties
2. In Louisiana parishes
3. In Alaska boroughs and census areas (Note: This is a change from the "census divisions" recognized
in the 1970 census.)
4. In the District of Columbia District of Columbia
5. In Montana Yellowstone National Park (in addition to counties)
6. In Georgia, Maryland, Missouri, Nevada, and Virginia independent cities (in addition to counties);
one in each State except Virginia, which has 41.
7. In Guam Guam
8. In Puerto Rico municipios
9. In the Virgin Islands islands
10. Codes for the outlying areas are those established by the Bureau of the Census. These are:
a American Samoa districts
b Canal Zone court districts
c Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands - administrative districts
d Northern Mariana Islands (if separate from the Trust Territory) municipalities
Three-digit numeric codes, unique within State or outlying area, have been assigned to each county or
rnuntv eauivalent. Counties are listed alphabetically followed by independent cities listed alphabetically.
A-9
-------
Place A place listed in the reference materials includes the following:
Incorporated Place A place incorporated as a municipality under the laws of its State, and
recognized as an incorporated place by the U.S. Bureau of the Census.
Notes: (1) This class specifically includes places incorporated as cities and villages, places incor-
porated asboroughs (except in Alaska), and places incorporated as towns except in eight
States: Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New York, Rhode Island,
Vermont, and Wisconsin. Townships are not included in this class; they, and "towns" in
the eight States specified possess some or all of the corporate powers common to incor-
porated municipalities elsewhere, but are areally extensive units which are not regarded as
"places" for census purposes.
(2) An inactive incorporated place (an incorporated place with no active governmental
organs) is considered to be an incorporated place as long as it is so regarded by the Bureau
of the Census.
Unincorporated Populated Place (1980 Census Designated Places Only) A concentration of
population which:
a. is a closely settled population center without corporate limits delineated by the Bureau of the
Census,
b. has a name that is in common use locally to refer to it, and
c. is not part of any incorporated place, or of another unincorporated place.
Note: A place is not considered "populated" if it has only daytime (working) population but no
permanent residents, or if it has only seasonal population but no year-round residents, or if its
population consists wholly or largely of prison or institution inmates. To qualify as a populated
place, a community must generally have a population concentration of at least eight permanent
nonfarm households or twenty-five permanent nonfarm residents. However, some named com-
munities with fewer residents may qualify if they have a post office, a railroad station, or one or
more stores. An unincorporated populated place has boundaries and an areal extent. These
boundaries are delimited by the maintenance agent, on the basis of the verifiable extent of a
concentration of residences, and local opinion as to the extent of the area known by the
community name.
Township A geographical-political entity recognized as a township, "town" (in one of eight
States), or plantation (in Maine), which:
a. has a well-recognized name and boundaries; and either
b-1. qualifies as a local government under the laws of its State; or
b-2. formerly qualified as a township, "town," borough, or plantation government at some date
since 1900, and is not now part of an incorporated place or another township, "town," borough,
or plantation.
Notes: (1) This category comprises chiefly townships but also includes plantations in Maine and
"towns" in eight States (Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New York,
Rhode Island, Vermont, and Wisconsin) in which the term "town" is used for areally
extensive units similar to the townships of other States.
(2) Townships and "towns" are never wholly or partly included in other towmships or
"towns." However, they often overlap areally with one or more incorporated places,
unincorporated places, or both.
(3) Townships that may exist as administrative subdivisions of counties in certain States,
but that have never exercised local government powers, are not included. Examples are
the townships of North Carolina and California.
Defense Installation A named base or similar facility of the Department of Defense or one of
its branches, that is included in a current listing of major bases and installations issued for general
circulation by the Department of Defense or one of its branches.
Indian Reservation An area officially so designated by the Bureau of Indian Affairs or by the
State.
A-10
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