xvEPA
United States
Environmental Protection
Agency
Air Pollution Training Institute
MD20
Environmental Research Center
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
EPA 450/2-82-004
July 1983
Air
APTI
Correspondence Course 434
Introduction to
Ambient Air Monitoring
Guidebook
Second Edition
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United States
Environmental Protection
Agency
Air Pollution Training Institute
MD20
Environmental Research Center
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
EPA 450/2-82-004
July 1983
Air
APTI
Correspondence Course 434
Introduction to
Ambient Air Monitoring
Guidebook
Second Edition
Technical Content:
B. M. Ray
Instructional Design:
M. M. Peterson
Northrop Services. Inc.
P.O. Box 12313
Research Triangle Park. NC 27709
Under Contract No.
68-02-3573
EPA Project Officer
R. E. Townsend
United States Environmental Protection Agency
Office of Air, Noise, and Radiation
Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
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Notice
This is not an official policy and standards document. The opinions and selections
are those of the authors and not necessarily those of the Environmental Protection
Agency. Every attempt has been made to represent the present state of the art as
well as subject areas still under evaluation. Any mention of products or organiza-
tions does not constitute endorsement by the United States Environmental Protec-
tion Agency.
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Table of Contents
Page
Course Introduction 0-1
Part A
Section A-l. Introduction to Atmospheric Sampling and Basic
Properties of Gases Al-1
Review Exercise Al-3
Review Exercise Answers Al-11
Section A-2. Air Movers and Air Measuring Instruments A2-1
Review Exercise A2-3
Review Exercise Answers A2-21
Section A-3. Inertial Sampling for Paniculate Matter A3-1
Review Exercise A3-3
Review Exercise Answers A3-7
Section A-4. Introduction to Pertinent Statistical Techniques
for Air Monitoring A4-1
Review Exercise A4-3
Review Exercise Answers A4-11
Part B
Section B-l. High Volume Sampling of Paniculate Matter
and Evaluation of Filter Media Bl-1
Review Exercise Bl -3
Review Exercise Answers Bl -11
Section B-2. Manual Sampling of Gaseous Pollutants B2-1
Review Exercise B2-3
Review Exercise Answers B2-12
Section B-3. Preparation of Calibration Gases B3-1
Review Exercise B3-3
Review Exercise Answers B3-8
Section B-4. Introduction to the Reference Methods and Reference
Measurement Principles for the Criteria Pollutants,
Continuous Air Quality Monitors, and Design of
Air Quality Monitoring Networks B4-1
Review Exercise B4-3
Review Exercise Answers B4-9
111
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Course Introduction
Overview of Course
Course Description
This training course is a 50-hour correspondence course about ambient air quality
monitoring. This course introduces terms used in air monitoring and presents prac-
tical information about the monitoring process. Theoretical monitoring concepts
are also described. Course topics include the following:
• ambient air monitoring objectives
• ambient air sampling train design
• basic gas properties
• air movers and air measuring devices
• statistical techniques pertaining to air monitoring
• ambient sampling of paniculate matter
• manual sampling of ambient gaseous pollutants
• calibration gas preparation
• reference methods and reference measurement principles for the criteria
pollutants
• continuous air quality monitors
• air quality monitoring network design.
This course is divided into two parts, each with four sections. Part A includes
background information pertinent to air quality monitoring. Part B includes
sampling and monitoring techniques. If you are familiar with the topics presented
in Part A, Lessons A1-A4 (listed on page 0-3), you can skip this part of the course
by passing a proficiency test. This is discussed in more detail on page 0-4.
Course Goal
To familiarize you with general information about the reference methods and
reference method principles for the criteria pollutants, continuous air quality
monitors, air quality monitoring network design, and statistical techniques per-
taining to ambient air monitoring. This course will also familiarize you with detailed
information concerning basic gas properties, particulate matter sampling, manual
sampling of ambient gaseous pollutants, and calibration of air quality monitors.
Course Objectives
Upon completion of this course, you should be able to:
1. identify at least six objectives of ambient air quality monitoring.
2. describe and correct for the effects of temperature and pressure on measured
air volumes.
0-1
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3. recognize at least seven air movers and at least 13 air measuring devices used
in atmospheric sampling.
4. identify at least six inertial collection devices, optimum inertial sampling
conditions, at least five inertial sampling sources of error, and two applica-
tions of the inertial sampling of particulate matter.
5. recognize considerations for the operation, maintenance, calibration of high
volume samplers and identify and describe how to minimize potential sources
of error in high volume sampling.
6. describe how at least four filtration mechanisms are affected by filter and
sampling conditions and recognize the advantages and disadvantages of
cellulose, glass fiber, and membrane filters.
7. recognize and describe the effects of at least five sampling conditions on the
collection efficiencies of liquid absorbers.
8. identify and describe the effects of at least four sampling conditions on the
adsorption of gaseous pollutants.
9. identify optimum conditions for preparing calibration gases using bags,
permeation tubes, single dilution systems, and double dilution systems and
calculate the concentrations of these gases.
10. recognize advantages and disadvantages of at least six adsorbents used in the
preparation of zero air or the removal of water vapor from a gas stream.
11. identify the reference methods and reference measurement principles for the
criteria pollutants.
12. recognize advantages and disadvantages of coulometric, amperometric,
second derivative spectroscopic, flame photometric, fluorescence,
chemiluminescence, ultraviolet photometric, and nondispersive infrared air
quality monitors.
13. recognize major considerations in designing the sensor and data systems of
an ambient air quality monitoring network.
14. interpret and construct statistical graphs for analyzing ambient air moni-
toring data.
0-2
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Sequence, Lesson Titles, and Trainee Involvement Time
Lesson number Lesson title Trainee involvement
Part A time (hours)
A-l Introduction to Atmospheric 6
Sampling and Basic Properties
of Gases
A-2 Air Movers and Air Measuring 6
Instruments
A-3 Inertial Sampling for Paniculate 6
Matter
A-4 Introduction to Pertinent Statis- 7
tical Techniques for Air Monitoring
Part B
B-l High Volume Sampling of Particu- 6
late Matter and Evaluation of
Filter Media
B-2 Manual Sampling of Gaseous 7
Pollutants
B-3 Preparation of Calibration Gases 6
B-4 Introduction to the Reference 6
Methods and Reference Measure-
ment Principles for the Criteria
Pollutants, Continuous Air Quality
Monitors, and Design of Air Quality
Monitoring Networks
0-3
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Requirements for Successful Completion of this Course
In order to receive 5.0 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) and a certificate of
course completion, you must achieve a final course grade of 70 (out of 100). You
have two options for completing the course:
Option #1
• Complete Part A (Sections
A1-A4) of this course.
• Take Quiz 1 under supervision.
• Complete Part B (Sections
B1-B4) of this course.
• Take Quiz 2 under supervision.
• Take a supervised final
examination.
If you choose Option #1, your
grade will be determined as
follows:
20% from Quiz 1
20% from Quiz 2
60% from the final examination
Option #2
• Ask your test supervisor for one
of the examinations included in
the test envelope. Take the
exam under supervision, have it
mailed in, and wait for the
exam results. If you correctly
answered 80% of the questions
pertaining to part A, then you
will not have to complete Part A
of this course, nor will you have
to take Quiz #1.
• Complete Part B (Sections
B1-B4) of this course.
• Take Quiz 2 under supervision.
• Take a supervised final
examination.
If you choose Option #2, your
grade will be determined as
follows:
40% from Quiz 2
60% from the final examination
0-4
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Use of Course Materials
Necessary Materials
• APTI Correspondence Course 434 Introduction to Ambient Air Monitoring:
Guidebook, Second Edition
• EPA 450/2-80-004, APT! Course 435 Atmospheric Sampling: Student Manual,
Second Edition
• pencil or pen
• calculator would be very helpful
Use of this Guidebook
Relationship Between Guidebook and Assigned Reading Materials
This guidebook directs your progress through the reference text APTI Course 435
Atmospheric Sampling: Student Manual, Second Edition.
Description of Guidebook Sections
This guidebook contains reading assignment sections which correspond to lessons of
the course.
Each section contains the following:
• reading assignment
• reading assignment topics
• section's learning goal and objectives
• reading guidance
• review exercise
Please do not write in this guidebook.
Instructions for Completing the Quizzes and Examinations
• You should have received, along with this guidebook, a separate sealed
envelope containing two quizzes and two examinations.
• You must arrange to have someone serve as your test supervisor.
• You must give the sealed envelope containing the quizzes and examinations
to your test supervisor.
[Note: If you would like to meet the proficiency qualification of Part A of the
course, complete one of the examinations under the supervision of your test
supervisor, have it mailed in, and wait for the exam results.]
• At designated times during the course, under the supervision of your test
supervisor, complete the quiz(zes) and the final exam.
• After you have completed each quiz or exam, your test supervisor must
sign a statement on the quiz/exam answer sheet certifying that the quiz/exam
was administered in accordance with the specified test instructions.
0-5
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• After signing the quiz/exam answer sheet, your test supervisor must mail the
quiz/exam and its answer sheet to the following address:
Air Pollution Training Institute
Environmental Research Center
MD20
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
• After completing a quiz, continue with the course. Do not wait for quiz
results.
• Quiz/exam and course grade results will be mailed to you.
If you have questions, contact:
Air Pollution Training Institute
Environmental Research Center
MD 20
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
Telephone numbers:
Commercial: (919) 541-2401
FTS: 629-2401
0-6
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Part A
You may skip Part A if you are familiar
with the material presented here. Refer to
page 0-4 of the Course Introduction for
information about exempting this part of
the course.
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AIR POLLUTION TRAINING INSTITUTE
£J ENVIRONMENTAL RESEARCH CENTER • MD 17 • RESEARCH TRIANGLE PARK • NC 27711 • (919) 541-2497 • FTS 629-2497
ATTENTION
PLEASE READ CAREFULLY
You are now enrolled with the Air Pollution Training Institute. The enclosed materials
are for your usage. You may keep the printed materials, however, any slides or
video/audio tapes are loaned materials and MUST be returned to the Institute.
To receive Continuing Education Units (CEUs), and a certificate of completion, please
submit the final examination to the APTI. We encourage you to complete the course
within 30 days.
Students choosing not to take the final, should fill out this form, and return it along
with any slides or tapes. This will ensure your cancellation from the course.
Otherwise you will remain enrolled and responsible for the loaned slides/tapes.
IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT STUDENTS BE CONSCIENTIOUS BY PROMPTLY
RETURNING THE LOANED MATERIALS, IN ORDER NOT TO DEPRIVE OTHERS
OF THE CHANCE TO BENEFIT FROM THOSE MATERIALS.
Please direct all correspondence to:
Registrar
APTI MD-17
US EPA
RESEARCH TRIANGLE PARK, NC 27711
We are happy to provide you with this training.
Name:
Address:
Date:
I choose not to take the exam for course (SI/CC) #_
Please cancel me from the course.
Operated for the • UNITED STATES ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY • by
I Research and Evaluation Associates, Inc.
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* ERRATA *
Requirements for Successful Completion of Course CC:434
In order to receive 5.0 Continuing Education Units (CEU's) and a certificate of
course completion you must:
* complete and submit a final exam to the APTI
* achieve a final course grade of at least 70%.
The quizzes associated with the course are for review purposes. The answers
are enclosed for the student to use to correct his or her own quizzes. This way
the student can assses his/her understanding of the material before taking the
final exam. Do not send in the answer sheets to the quizzes to be graded. The
final exam counts for 100% of the course grade.
If you have questions please contact:
Registrar
Air Pollution Training Institute
US EPA MD-17
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
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CC:434
Quiz 1
Answer Sheet
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Address:
Name.
~~~" Date_
CC:434
Quiz 2
Answer Sheet
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instructions.
Quiz Supervisor
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CC:434
Quiz 1
• This quiz is intended to be a closed-book exam. Do not use your notes or books.
You may use a calculator.
• You will have SO minutes to complete the quiz.
• On the answer sheet, circle the letter that corresponds to the best answer to each
question. Each correct answer is worth five points.
1. Which of the following is a(are) possible consideration(s) in selecting an air
mover for atmospheric sampling?
a. sampling flow rate
b. physical /chemical nature of the air to be sampled
c. portability of the air mover
d. all of the above
2. True or False? Inenial sampling is based on the principle that the momentum
of a particle in a moving air stream will cause the panicle to be deflected less
than the air in the vicinity of the particle when the air stream undergoes a
sudden change in direction.
S. 77 degrees Fahrenheit equals v) degrees Celsius.
a. 38
b. 6
c. 20
d. 25
4. True or False? Orifice meters are primary standard variable pressure rate
meters.
5. If the available sampling time is 20 hours, and if the analytical method is
accurate only for samples containing at least 10 pg of the pollutant, and if the
air sample is expected to contain at least 1 fig/m* of the pollutant, then a
sampling flow rate of at least (?) mVh is required.
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
QJ-1
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6. mass flow meter
7. wet test meter
8. rotameter
9. soap bubble meter
10. critical orifice
For each of questions 6 through 10, match the air measuring device with its
appropriate diagram or description.
a. This device consists of a series of inverted
buckets or traps mounted radially around
a shaft and partially immersed in water.
The locations of the entry and exit gas
ports are such that the entering gas fills a
bucket, displacing the water and causing
the shaft to rotate due to the lifting
action of the bucket full of air. The
enu ipped air is released at the upper
portion of the rotation and the bucket
again fills with water. In turning, the
drum rotates index pointers that register
the volume of gas passed through the
meter.
b. This device works on the principle that
as a gas passes over a heated surface,
heat is transferred from the surface to
the gas. The amount of current required
to keep the surface at a constant tem-
perature is a measure of the velocity of
the gas.
c.
d.
Air out
e.
Float
Pressure drop >
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11. Which of the following has no National Ambient Air Quality Standard
(NAAQS)?
a. sulfur dioxide
b. hydrogen sulfide
c. both a and b, above
d. carbon monoxide
12. True or False? Panicle size and density affect the collection efficiency of an
inertial sampling device.
IS. 0.140 ppm of SO, (molecular weight: 64 g/g«mol) at EPA's standard
temperature and pressure (STP) conditions is equal to v) Mg/00' °f SOt .
a. 566 . .
b. 400
c. 55.5
d. 0.366
14. Which of the following is a(are) potential sources) of error in inertial
sampling?
a. panicle shattering
b. particle re-entrainment
c. collection device calibration
d. all of the above
For questions 15 and 16, select the appropriate equations used to correct air
volumes or flow rates to EPA's STP conditions when measurements are made with
the following types of meters.
15. volume meters _. ^ ... _ . /P,\/Tt\
a. V, or Q, = (V, or Q,) f-i I -*
16. rate meters \Pi/\T,/
b. V, or Q, = (V, or Q,) (£)(£)
\*V \ 1 1/
c.
d.
\m
im
Where: V, = corrected volume of air at EPA's STP
Y! = measured volume of air at Pj and TI
Q,= corrected flow rate at EPA's STP
conditions
Q,=measured flow rate at PI and TI
TI = measured temperature of air, K
T, = 298K
P, = measured pressure of air, mm Hg
PI = 760 mm Hg
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17. Which of the following is a(are) possible objective(s) of ambient air quality
monitoring?
a. determine attainment of the National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS)
b. evaluate progress in achieving/maintaining NAAQS
c. provide data for initiating reductions of emissions during air pollution
emergency episodes
d. all of the above
18. True or False? The size of the jet and the jet's distance from the collection sur-
face affect the collection efficiency of an inertial sampling device.
19. True or False? At constant temperature, the volume of a gas increases as the
pressure exened on it increases.
20. True or False? In air sampling trains, air movers and flow measuring devices
are usually placed downstream of sample collection devices to avoid
contamination of the sample air stream.
Ql-4
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\Hiess-e Print)
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__ Name.
Date_
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CC-.434
I cenify that this test was administered in accordance with the specified test
instructions.
Quiz Supervisor
7-85
Ql-5
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CC:434
Quiz 2
• This quiz is intended to be a closed-book exam. Do not use your notes or
books. You may use a calculator.
• You will have SO minutes to complete the quiz.
• On the answer sheet, circle the letter that corresponds to the best answer to each
question. Each correct answer is worth five points.
1. In calibrating a high volume sampler flow rate transfer standard, a
(?) is connected to the inlet of a Roots meter and a (?) is
connected to the Roots meter's outlet.
a. mercury manometer, flow rate transfer standard/filter adapter assembly
b. flow rate transfer standard/filter adapter assembly, water manometer
c. flow rate transfer standard/filter adapter assembly, high volume sampler
motor
d. high volume sampler motor, flow rate transfer standard/filter adapter
assembly
2. True or False? Sample air flow rate, bubble size, and the height of the absor-
bent column affect the collection efficiency of a liquid absorber.
S. True or False? The permeation rate of a permeation tube decreases as the
temperature of the permeation tube increases.
4. True or False? Particle re-entrainment decreases as filter face velocity
increases.
5. Under the conditions described below, the suspended paniculate concentration
obtained using a high volume sampler is (?) Mg/std m*.
a. 222
b. 182 Given: Weight of filter after sampling: S.432 g
c. 200 Weight of filter before sampling: 5.000 g "
d. 12 Initial sampling flow rate: 1.65 std mVmin
Final sampling flow rate: 1.S5 std m'/min
Sampling period: midnight 9-22-81 to midnight 9-2S-81
6. True or False? An adsorbent's collection efficiency increases as its surface area
increases.
7. True or False? The absorption of acid gases by glass fiber filters can be
minimized by using glass fiber filters which have a basic pH.
8. True or False? In order to maintain a constant permeation rate, diluent gas
passing over a permeation tube must be kept at a constant temperature and
zero humidity.
Q2-1
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9. Which of the following is a(are) desirable qualities) for an adsorbent?
a. granular
b. little or no resistance to air flow
c. inert except for a specific adsorbate
d. all of the above
10. True or False? Glass fiber filters can withstand high temperatures and corrosive
atmospheres, and have high collection efficiencies.
11. If an SO, (molecular weight: 64 g/g»mol) permeation tube has a permeation
rate of 2.000 /ig/min at a temperature of 25°C and a pressure of 760 mm of
mercury, what is the SOX concentration (ppm) at EPA's STP conditions
generated by a permeation system using the permeation tube and having a
total dilution flow rate of 2.000 l/min?
a. 0.582
b. 2.62
c. O.S50
d. 2.86
12. True or False? A modified vacuum cleaner motor, a stainless steel filter holder,
and an 8" x 10" filter are components of a high volume sampler.
IS. True or False? A calibration curve for a high volume sampler flow rate
measuring device is constructed by plotting standard flow rates versus
appropriately expressed flow rates indicated by the high volume sampler's flow
rate measuring device.
14. True or False? Silica gel, calcium sulfate, and anhydrous magnesium per*
chlorate are common adsorbents for removing water vapor from a gas stream.
15. True or False? Anifact paniculate matter formation on alkaline high volume
filters is a potential source of error in high volume sampling.
16. True or False? In-situ reactions are a potential sampling problem when using
bag grab sampling techniques. l
17. True or False? Surface reactions at the frit are a potential sampling problem
when using fritted-glass absorbers.
18. True or False? Faceplate gaskets and motor gaskets of high volume samplers
need periodic replacement
19. True or False? In-situ reactions on the adsorbent during sampling and variable
desorption efficiency of the adsorbate during analysis are typical adsorption air
monitoring problems.
20. What is the SOt concentration (ppm) generated by a single dilution system if
the system's undiluted SO, concentration is 200 ppm, the flow rate of
undiluted SO2 is 1 f/min, and the flow rate of diluent gas is 19 l/min?
a. 10.0
b. 10.5
c. 20.0
d. 200
Q2-2
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CC-.434
Quiz 2
Answer Sheet
I certify that this test was administered in accordance with the specified test
instructions.
Quiz Supervisor
7-8S
Q2-3
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CC-.434
Examination 1
• This test is designed to measure whether you have mastered the objectives of the
course.
• It is intended to be a closed-book exam. .Dp not use your notes or books. You
may use a calculator.
• You will have 75 minutes to complete the test.
• On the answer sheet, circle the letter that corresponds to the best answer to each
question. Each correct answer is worth two points.
1. The total required suction pressure for a pump is v) the total
pressure drop between the intake of the sample collection device and the
pump's intake.
a. equal to
b. greater than
c. less than
2. Which of the following has no NAAQS?
a. nitric oxide
b. nitrogen dioxide
c. lead
d. ozone
3. True or False? Thermal properties of gases affect flow rate measurements
made by mass flow meters.
4. What is the SO, concentration (ppm) generated by a single dilution system if
the system's undiluted SOX concentration is 100 ppm, the flow rate of
undiluted SO, is 1 f/min, and the flow rate of diluent gas is 19 £/min?
a. 90.4
b. 5.3
c. 5.0
d. 100
5. For a barometric pressure of 760 mm of mercury, systems having internal
pressures of 770 mm and 750 mm of mercury would have gauge pressures of
(?) and (*) mm of mercury respectively.
a. 770. 750
b. 10. -10
c. -10. 10
EM
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6. Which of the following panicle characteristics affect(s) the collection efficiency
of an inertial sampling device?
a. particle size
b. particle density
c. both a and b, above
7. Which of the following is a(are) potential sources) of error in inertial
sampling.
w
as its surface area increases.
c. particle re-entrainment
d. all of the above
8. An adsorbent's collection efficiency
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
9. In the calibration set-up for a high volume sampler flow rate transfer standard
depicted below a, b, c, d, and e are the C?l respectively.
a. water manometer, mercury
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
Roots meter, and
high volume motor
b. mercury manometer, water
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
Roots meter, and
high volume motor
c. mercury manometer, water
manometer, high volume
motor, Roots meter, and
flow rate transfer
standard
d. water manometer, mercury
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
high volume motor,
and Roots meter
10. 0.200 ppm of SO2 (molecular weight: 64 g/g»mol) at EPA's STP is equal to
(?) /ig/ms of SOt.
a. 523
b. 600
c. 76.4
d. 0.523
El-2
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For each of questions 11 through IS. match the instrumental method with its
advantage(s).
11. flame photometric a. highly specific for pollutant monitored,
12. second derivative no support gases are needed for its
spectroscopic operation
IS. fluorescence *>• no support gases are needed for its opera-
tion, relatively insensitive to temperature
and sample air flow variations
c. highly specific for sulfur compounds,
no chemical solutions are needed for its
operation, low maintenance requirements,
high sensitivity for sulfur compounds,
fast response
14. Which of the following is a(are) typical adsorption air monitoring problem(s)?
a. irreversible adsorption of the adsorbate
b. in-situ reactions on the adsorbent during sampling
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
15. (?) /if of 100% carbon monoxide must be introduced into a 10 t bag
to prepare 10 I of 10 ppm (fit/1) calibration gas.
a. 0.1
b. 100
c 10
d. 20
16. True or False? Regardless of its use, zero air always has the same composition.
17. The use of reference or equivalent methods is usually required
a. when monitoring for State Implementation Plan (SIP) purposes.
b. when monitoring for prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) purposes.
c. for both a and b, above.
d. for none of the above.
;.
18. A calibration curve for a high volume sampler flow rate transfer standard is
constructed by plotting (?) versus (?)
a. standard flow rate, VI(Pi/P«rf)(298/Tt)
b. flow rate transfer standard pressure drop, Roots meter pressure drop
c. standard flow rate, >/AH(P,/PJ,-)(298/Ti)
d. standard flow rate, indicated flow rate
19. True or False? Data should be analyzed before they are validated.
20. True or False? An air quality monitoring network needs a comprehensive
quality assurance program.
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For each of questions 21 through 24, match the criteria pollutant with the descrip-
tion of its reference method or reference measurement principle.
21. sulfur dioxide a. pararosaniline method
22. nitrogen dioxide b. chemiluminescence with ozone
25. carbon monoxide c. chemiluminescenc* with ethylene
24. orone d. nondispersive infrared spectrometry
25. Which of the following is(are) necessary for the designation of an automated
equivalent method?
a. Performance specifications for au'^mated methods must be met.
b. A measurement principle different from the reference measurement prin-
ciple must be used.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
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26. Which one of the following cumulative frequency distribution curves represents
the data given in the histogram below?
20
I 16
t
"a a
I
o 4
0
11 ' '
•
•
•
r***"
.
^••M
, :
^^m
mmm
•
-
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
a.
b.
a
Ǥ
•j C
i!
<* >
100
80
60
40
20
i j §
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
i*
Is
§
100
80
60
40
20
0 20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
c.
d.
e
o
"3
s
100
80
60
40
20
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
1
100
60
40
20
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
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27. The geometric mean of a log normally distributed data set gives
measure of the data set's central location as(than does) the data set's arithmetic
mean.
a. the same
b. a more accurate
c. a less accurate
28. Which of the following is a(are) possible objective(s) of ambient air quality
monitoring?
a. Establish baseline air quality levels for preventing the significant deteriora-
tion of air quality.
b. Provide data for the development/validation of in-situ stack emission
monitors.
c. Provide data for initiating reductions of emissions during air pollution
emergency episodes.
d. both a and c, abov-
29. In the typical sampling train depicted below; a, b, c, and d are the
y) respectively.
a. flow measuring device, sample collection device, air mover, and
contaminant detector
b. sample collection device, contaminant detector, air mover, and flow
measuring device
c. air mover, sample collection device, sample manifold, and contaminant
detector
d. sample collection device, sample manifold, air mover, and flow measuring
device
Air in
a
A
c
Air out
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SO. Which of the following equations is used to correct flow rates measured by rate
meters to EPA's STP conditions?
c. Qj =
d. Q^ =
Where:
P NT
Q, = corrected flow rate at EPA's STP conditions
Q, = measured flow rate at PI and TI
TI — measured temperature of gas, K
T, = 298K
PI = measured pressure of gas, mm Hg
P, = 760 mm Hg
degrees Celsius.
31. 50 degrees Fahrenheit equals
a. 10
b. 122
c. -4.2
d. 15.3
32. Which one of the following equations is the most accurate and easiest to use
for calculating standard geometric deviation?
a.
n-1
|/
f
nEX.«-(£X,)»
n(n-l)
c.
V*
d. antilog
Where:
n-1
£(logX)*-(£logX)«
n
n-1
X, = a data value
X = the mean of the data sample
n = the number of observations
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SS. True or False? Blank concentrations of pollutants in clean glass fiber filters
should be taken into account when analyzing exposed filters for pollutants.
84. True or False? Particle size and density affect the collection efficiency of an
inertial sampling device.
55. Under the condition described below, the suspended paniculate concentration
obtained using a high volume sampler is v) pg/std m8.
a. 250
b. 255
c. 100
d. 268
Given: Weight of filter after sampling: 5.540 g
Weight of filter before sampling: 5.000 g
Initial sampling flow rate: 1.60 std mVmin
Final sampling flow rate: 1.40 std mVmin
Sampling period: midnight 7-11-81 to midnight 7-12-81
56. At constant temperature, the volume of a gas v) as the pressure
exerted on it w
a. decreases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. increases, increases
57. w standard meters are those calibrated against v) or
(') standard meters. Accuracies better than 5% can be achieved.
a. Secondary, primary, intermediate
b. Intermediate, primary, secondary
c. Primary, intermediate, secondary
58. Which of the following equations is used to correct air volumes s^rrpled to
EPA's STP conditions?
b.V, = (V,,|^;fB
C.
Where: V2 = corrected volume of air at Pt and Tf, t
Vj = initial volume of air at P! and TI, t
TI = initial temperature of air, K
P, = initia! pressure of air, mm Hg
P2= 700 n-.rr Hg
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39. A calibration curve for a high Volume slffiiptaf flow rate measuring device is .
constructed by plotting (?) versus (?)
a. standard flow rates, appropriately expressed flow rates indicated by the
high volume sampler's flow rate measuring device
b. flow rate transfer standard pressure drops, appropriately expressed flow
rates indicated by the high volume sampler's flow rate measuring device
c. standard flow rates, flow rate transfer standard pressure drops
40. Particle re-entrainment (?) as the filter face velocity increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
t •
41. True or False? The absorption of acid gases by glass fiber filters can be
minimized by using glass fiber filters which have a neutral pH.
42. Which of the following should be considered when choosing an absorbent for a
chemical absorption pollutant sampling process?
a. pollutant solubility in absorbent
b. reactive properties of the pollutant and the absorbent
c. method of pollutant analysis
d. all of the above
43. True or False? A critical orifice is an orifice meter having a pressure drop such
that any further decrease in its downstream pressure or increase in its upstream
pressure will not change the gas flow rate through it.
44. Which of the following is a(are) disadvantage^) of fritted-glass absorbers?
a. possibility of surface reactions at the frit
b. fritted-glass absorbers having frit pore sizes of approximately 50 fan or less
gradually become clogged with use
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
45. (?) meters measure the total (?) of gas passed through them
over some specified time period.
a. Volume, volume
b. Rate, rate
c. Velocity, velocity
46. True or False? A mass flow meter works on the principle that as a gas passes
over a heated surface, heat is transferred from the surface to the gas. The
amount of current required to keep the surface at a constant temperature is a
measure of the velocity of the gas.
47. Neighborhood scale measurements are associated with ambient air volumes
with dimensions ranging from (?) kilometer(s).
a. 4 to 50
b. 5 to 10
c. 0.1 to 0.5
d. 0.5 to 4
£1-9
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48. True or False? Before designing an air quality monitoring network, the uses of
the data that will be generated by the network should be established.
49. True or False? The SAROAD data format is available from EPA.
50. True or False? Data validation should be performed as closely as possible in
place and time to the collection of the data.
EMO
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Name.
Date_
CC:434
Examination 1
Answer Sheet
(L)
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I certify that this test was administered in accordance with the specified test
instructions.
Test Supervisor
Note: Questions having circled numbers test objectives of Part A
(Sections A-l through A-4) of the course.
7-8S
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Section A-l
Introduction to Atmospheric Sampling
and Basic Properties of Gases
Reading Assignment
Pages 1-1 through 2-34 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
Objectives of air monitoring
Sampling train design
Temperature and pressure measurement
Ideal Gas Law
Gas density and viscosity
Units of measurement
Air monitoring terminology
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with objectives of air monitoring,
air monitoring terminology, sampling train design, and basic properties of gases.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. state the purposes of primary and secondary National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS) and identify the pollutants for which NAAOJS have
been established.
2. identify at least six objectives of ambient air quality monitoring.
3. identify the locations of sampling train components in a typical sampling
train.
4. identify four temperature scales used in atmospheric sampling and convert
temperatures from one scale to another.
5. define pressure terms used in atmospheric sampling.
6. describe pressure measuring devices used in ambient air quality monitoring.
7. explain the effects of temperature and pressure on sampled air volumes.
AM
-------
8. correct sampled air volumes to EPA's Standard Temperature and Pressure
(STP) conditions for ambient air monitoring.
9. define the following gas characteristics: density, viscosity, molar volume,
specific gravity, and Reynold's number.
10. report values commonly measured in ambient air sampling using their
appropriate reporting units.
11. convert between pollutant concentrations expressed in parts per million
(ppm) and those expressed in micrograms per cubic meter (jtg/m3).
Reading Guidance
• Refer often to the equations, example calculations, and figures of the assigned
reading material as you progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section A-l. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any), proceed to Section A-2
of this guidebook.
Al-2
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Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section A-l, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are mas-
tering the material. Please do not write in this guidebook.
1. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) have been established for
which of the following?
a. sulfur dioxide
b. total suspended particulate matter
c. mercury
d. both a and c, above
e. both a and b, above
2. Which of the following has no NAAQS?
a. nitric oxide
b. nitrogen dioxide
c. lead
d. ozone
3. Primary NAAQS are established to protect public v)
a. health
b. welfare
c. health and welfare
d. none of the above
4. Secondary NAAQS are established to protect public ( '
a. health
b. welfare
c. health and welfare
d. none of the above
5. True or False? State implementation plans (SIPs) are air pollution control
strategies used by the States to attain and maintain the NAAQS.
6. Which of the following is not a possible objective of ambient air quality
monitoring?
a. determine attainment of NAAQS
b. evaluate progress in achieving/maintaining NAAQS
c. develop or revise SIPs
d. review air quality impacts of new sources of air pollution
e. determine emission rates of pollutants from stacks
Al-3
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7. Which of the following is a(are) possible objective(s) of ambient air quality
monitoring?
a. establish baseline air quality levels for preventing the significant deteriora-
tion of air quality
b. provide data for the development/validation of air pollution dispersion
models
c. provide data for the development/validation of in-situ stack emission
monitors
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
8. In the typical sampling train depicted below, a, b, c, and d are the
y) respectively.
a. flow measuring device, sample collection device, air mover, and contami-
nant detector
b. sample collection device, contaminant detector, air mover, and flow
measuring device
c. air mover, sample collection device, sample manifold, and contaminant
detector
d. sample collection device, sample manifold, air mover, and flow measuring
device
Air in
Air out
9. In air sampling trains, air movers and flow measuring devices should be placed
W sample collection devices to avoid contamination of the sample air
stream.
a. downstream of
b. upstream of
c. at the same location as
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10. In an air sampling train, inert materials should be used
v-/ of the
sample collection device to avoid contamination/loss of the pollutant being
sampled.
a. downstream
b. upstream
c. upstream and downstream
1 1 . True or False? Use of long sampling lines should be avoided because they
enhance the possible sampling line wall loss of sample pollutant.
12. True or False? Components of air sampling trains must be protected from
damage caused by sampled air and products of the measurement system.
13. In the figure below, a, b, c, and d are the (?) temperature scales
respectively.
a. Fahrenheit, Celsius, Rankine, and kelvin
b. Celsius, Fahrenheit, kelvin, and Rankine
c. kelvin, Fahrenheit, Celsius, and Rankine
d. Rankine, Fahrenheit, kelvin, and Celsius
of H2O at
1 atm
pressure
Freezing point
1 atm pressure
Ahsnlnfp ^.
zero
0100
onn
_ ,li:n CO/
•^
-
l
»«
1 nAo
0°
) 27S°-(J
^ f
• — . .. ,.fi71 fi°. -
. iim fi°
^ n°f
V ° v!
«k
- _ 979
.. °7S
\ n
y °
a b c d
14. 68 degrees Fahrenheit equals
a. 38
b. 6
c. 20
d. 25
15. 10 degrees Celsius equals
a. 50
b. -14
c. 32
d. 65
degrees Celsius.
degrees Fahrenheit.
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21.
degrees Rankine.
16. 25 degrees Celsius equals v/ kelvin.
a. 248
b. 273
c. 298
d. 312
17. 25 degrees Fahrenheit equals (?)
a. 460
b. 435
c. 550
d. 485
18. The temperature at which a gas, if it did not condense, would theoretically
have a volume of zero is called (?) .
a. critical temperature
b. dew point temperature
c. absolute zero
19. Absolute zero is equal to (?)
Fahrenheit.
a. 273, 460
b. -273, -460
c. -460, -273
d. 460, 273
20. Pressure is expressed as (?)
a. force, area
b. force, volume
c. area, force
d. volume, force
degrees Celsius and
degrees
per unit
(?)
Pressure is equal in
and acts (?)
directions at a point within a volume of fluid
to a surface.
a. some, perpendicular
b. all, horizontal
c. all, perpendicular
d. some, horizontal
22. The height of the mercury column in a Fortin barometer is measured from the
(?) of the ivory index point to the (?) of the mercury column.
a. middle, top
b. tip, top
c. tip, middle
d. middle, middle
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23. Before measuring barometric pressure using a Fortin barometer, the mercury
level in the barometer's cistern is adjusted until the ivory index point
(') the surface of the mercury.
a. is completely under
b. is halfway below
c. just pricks
24. The barometer scale depicted below indicates a barometric pressure of
(*/ cm of mercury.
a. 29.94
b. 76.50
c. 76.00
d. 76.05
Inches
Centimeters
Bottom of
vernier scale
Adjustable
vernier scale
Mercury
column
25. Aneroid barometers are usually v1/ as(than) Torricelli-type
barometers.
a. not as accurate
b. as accurate
c. more accurate
26. For a barometric pressure of 760 mm of mercury, systems having internal
pressures of 770 mm and 750 mm of mercury would have gage pressures of
(•) and (v mm of mercury respectively.
a. 770, 750
b. 10, -10
c. -10, 10
27. True or False? The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of its partial
pressures.
Al-7
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v/
as the pressure
as the temperature of
28. At constant temperature, the volume of a gas
exerted on it v) .
a. decreases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. increases, increases
29. At constant pressure, the volume of a gas
the gas v/ __
a. decreases, increases
b. increases, decreases
c. increases, increases
30. EPA's standard temperature and pressure (STP) conditions for ambient air
monitoring are v) degrees Celsius and (*/ mm of mercury.
a. 20, 760
b. 25, 760
c. 25, 700
d. 20, 700
31. Molar volume at EPA's STP conditions is (*/ liters.
a. 22.41
b. 24.46
c. 20.08
d. 26.35
32. The density of sulfur dioxide (molecular weight: 64 g/g»mol) at EPA's STP
conditions is v) g/t,
a. 2.6
b. 1.0
c. 16.3
d. 46.2
33. Which of the following equations is used to correct air volumes sampled to
EPA's STP conditions?
P
V2 = corrected volume of air at Pz and TI
Vi = initial volume of air at PI and TI, t
TI = initial temperature of air, K
T± = 298 K
PI = initial pressure of air, mm Hg
PZ = 760 mm Hg
Al-8
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34. The viscosity of a gas v/ as the temperature of the gas ' '
a. increases, increases
b. increases, decreases
c. decreases, increases
35. The v) the Reynold's number, the (') is the effect of viscous
forces.
a. smaller, smaller
b. larger, smaller
c. larger, larger
36. Which of the following should be considered when reporting measured pollu-
tant concentrations?
a. Ideally, units reported should be the same as units measured.
b. Should avoid multiplying measured values by larger numbers for extra-
polation purposes.
c. When air volumes are sampled, sampling temperature and pressure should
be reported.
d. all of the above
For each of questions 37 through 42, select the preferred reporting unit for each of
the following parameters.
37. particulate pollutant concentration a. ng/m3 at EPA's STP
38. gaseous pollutant concentration ' PPm/PP
c. degrees Fahrenheit
39. temperature d. degrees Celsius
40. time e- mcnes °f mercury
f. mm of mercury
41. pressure g 12:00 am to 12:00 pm
42. air sampling rate h. 0000 to 2400
i. mVmin
j. ftVmin
43. 0.489 ppm of SO2 (molecular weight: 64 g/g»mol) at EPA's STP is equal to
(?) fjLg/m3 of SO2.
a. 1,400
b. 1.28
c. 187
d. 1,280
44. 640 wg/m3 of SO2 (molecular weight: 64 g/g»mol) at EPA's STP is equal to
(') ppm of SO2.
a. 0.245
b. 245
c. 1.67
d. 16.7
Al-9
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For each of questions 45 through
45. pressure
46. absolute pressure
47. pressure-head
48. partial pressure
49. density
50. viscosity
51. laminar flow
52. turbulent flow
53. specific gravity
54. Reynold's number
55. standard barometric
pressure
56. molar volume
57. efficiency
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g-
57, match the term with its definition.
resistance to flow
mass per volume
unit compressive stress in a fluid
the sum of barometric pressure and gauge
pressure
pressure exerted by one component of a gas
mixture
the height of a column of fluid required to
produce a given pressure at its base
inertial force of a fluid
viscous force of a fluid
h. parallel movement of fluid layers
i.
j-
k.
1.
m.
attained performance
absolute performance
haphazard movement of fluid
density of a substance
density of a reference substance
the average atmospheric pressure at sea level,
45° north latitude, and 35 degrees Fahrenheit;
equivalent to a pressure of 1033.23 grams-force
per cm2 exerted at the base of a column of
mercury having a height of 760 mm
the volume of one mole of a gas at a specified
temperature and pressure
58. A barograph is the combination of a(n) (?)
a. aneroid barometer, Fortin barometer
b. aneroid barometer, automatic recording device
c. Fortin barometer, automatic recording device
59. Ideal gases are gases whose molecules *•)
occupy (*)
a. do not attract, no space
b. do not attract, space
c. attract, no space
d. attract, space
/•
60. A mole of a substance is the substance's L'
a. density
b. atomic number
c. molecular weight
d. viscosity
and a(n)
one another and which
expressed in mass units.
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Section A-l
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
e
a
a
b
True
e
d
b
a
b
True
True
a
c
a
c
d
c
b
a
c
b
c
d
a
b
True
a
c
b
b
a
a
a
b
d
a
b
1-1
1-1
1-1
1-1
1-1
1-1,1-2
1-1,1-2
1-3
1-4
1-4
1-4
1-4
2-2
2-1
2-1
2-1
2-1
2-1
2-1
2-3
2-3
2-5
2-5
2-6
2-6
2-9
2-11
2-12
2-12
2-15
2-14
2-14
2-15
2-17
2-18
2-22
2-23
2-23
AMI
-------
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
39. d 2-23
40. h 2-23
41. f 2-24
42. i 2-24
43. d 2-24,2-25
44. a 2-24,2-25
45. c 2-3
46. d 2-9
47. f 2-11
48. e 2-11
49. b 2-14
50. a 2-15
51. h 2-20
52. j 2-20
53. k 2-33
54. g 2-17
55. 1 2-3
56. m 2-14
57. i 2-28
58. b 2-7
59. a 2-12
60. c 2-13
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Section A-2
Air Movers and
Air Measuring Instruments
Reading Assignment
Pages 3-1 through 3-50 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• Air movers
• Air measuring instruments
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with air movers and air measuring
instruments.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. recognize at least six considerations in selecting an air mover for atmospheric
sampling.
2. recognize at least three evaluation criteria for determining the ease of
maintenance of an air mover.
3. identify piston, diaphragm, and centrifugal pumps from their diagrams.
4. recognize the effects of sample flow rate and pressure drop on the perform-
ance of air sampling pumps.
5. calculate the volume of air sampled by ambient air quality sampling trains.
6. describe the 13 air measuring devices discussed in this section and classify
them according to air measuring device category and standard meter class.
7. name at least four air movers that are used in atmospheric sampling.
8. calculate the required sampling flow rate for a given atmospheric sampling
situation.
9. identify a critical orifice calibration curve.
10. recognize equations used to correct measured flow rates and air volumes to
EPA's Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP) conditions.
11. recognize that gas density has an effect on flow rate measurements made by
rotameters.
A2-1
-------
12. recognize the effects of gas temperature, pressure, and thermal properties on
flow rate measurements made by mass flow meters.
13. name at least two advantages of a dry test meter over a wet test meter.
14. recognize at least two methods of maintaining a constant sampling flow rate
through a sampling train.
15. recognize the path of sample air flow through an ejector.
16. identify at least four sources of pressure drop in a typical sampling train.
Reading Guidance
• The calibration of flow measuring devices is discussed in this reading
assignment. EPA will verify the calibration of your flow measuring devices at
no cost to you. If you would like to use this service, contact: U.S. EPA, Quality
Assurance Division, Standards Laboratory, EMSL, MD 77, Research Triangle
Park, North Carolina 27711 (telephone: Commercial: (919) 541-2366,
FTS: 629-2366).
• Refer often to the equations, example calculations, and figures of the assigned
reading material as you progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section A-2. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any), proceed to Section
A-3 of this guidebook.
A2-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section A-2, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are mas-
tering the material.
1. True or False? The primary purpose of an air mover in the air sampling
process is to create a flow of air that will allow the pollutant of interest in the
air to be analyzed directly or to be collected for subsequent analysis.
2. Which of the following is not a possible consideration in selecting an air mover
for atmospheric sampling?
a. sampling flow rate
b. physical/chemical nature of the air to be sampled
c. portability of the air mover
d. noise of the air mover
e. ease of maintenance of the air mover
f. resistance to sample air flow by the collection device
g. none of the above
3. A sampling flow rate of at least (*^ mVh is required if the
available sampling time is 5 hours, the analytical method is accurate only for
samples which contain at least 10 /xg of the pollutant, and the air sample is
expected to contain at least 1 /ig/m3 of the pollutant.
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 10
4. Which of the following should be considered in evaluating the ease of
maintenance of an air mover?
a. accessibility of repair parts
b. sampling flow rate
c. cost of repair parts
d. both a and c, above
e. all of the above
5. In general, ('/ preventive maintenance activities (•' air
mover malfunctions.
a. increasing, increases
b. decreasing, decreases
c. increasing, decreases
A2-3
-------
For each of questions 6 and 7, match the general pump with its appropriate
relationship between pump capacity and pump suction pressure.
6. positive displacement
7. centrifugal
a.
u
a
o.
a
-------
For each of questions 9 through 11, match the pump with its appropriate diagr
9. piston pump a
_-^. . Suction
10. diaphragm pump
11. centrifugal pump
E«S&»4«s.>-*JS?aiK'">^*Ul\^» - i.. ,U
Impeller
Volute
Impeller eye
am.
Discharge
nozzle
b.
Discharge valve
Piston
Suction
valve
Suction valve
Discharge valve
Piston
Chamber
A2-5
-------
12. True or False? Variations of the driving force of a pump have no effect on the
pump's sampling flow rate.
13. The total required suction pressure for a pump is v) the total
pressure drop between the intake of the sample collection device and the
pump's intake.
a. equal to
b. greater than
c. less than
14. True or False? Properly calibrated pump pressure gauges can be used for
approximating flow rates through pumps.
15. In the ejector diagram below, sample air enters at v) and leaves
at
a. a,b
b. a,c
c. b,a
d. b,c
e. c,b
Suction
chamber
Diffuser
Nozzle
Driving
force a
High velocity
driving force
16. True or False? Evacuated flasks and containers which are filled with liquids
can be used as air movers.
17. Which of the following is not a(are not) method(s) for controlling sample air
flow rate?
a. diversion
b. resistance
c. control of air mover's driving force
d. modulation
e. all of the above
as the sampling train's resistance to
18. Generally, air mover flow rate (*/
flow (?)
a. increases, increases
b. decreases, increases
c. decreases, decreases
19. True or False? The collection efficiency of an air sampling device may be
affected by fluctuations in sampling flow rate.
A2-6
-------
20. Which of the following is not a source of pressure drop in a typical sampling
train?
a. sample collection device
b. flow measuring device
c. flow regulator
d. connecting lines
e. none of the above
21. A constant sampling flow rate can be maintained through a sampling train by
either v) tne f]ow regulator's resistance to flow or v/ the
pump's motor speed.
a. increasing, increasing
b. increasing, decreasing
c. decreasing, increasing
d. decreasing, decreasing
22. True or False? Measurement of the volume of air sampled affects the accuracy
and precision of the pollutant concentration determination.
23. Which of the following equations is appropriate for calculating the volume of
air sampled?
a. V-A
d. V = (Q)(t)
Where: V = volume of air sampled
Q= sampling flow rate
t = sampling time
24. Which of the following is not a(are not) category(ies) of air measuring devices?
a. volume meters
b. rate meters
c. velocity meters
d. centrifugal meters
e. all of the above
25. v) meters measure the total ' ) of gas passed through them
over some specified time period.
a. Volume, volume
b. Rate, rate
c. Velocity, velocity
A2-7
-------
26. v) meters measure the time v) of flow through them.
a. Volume, volume
b. Rate, rate
c. Velocity, velocity
27. v) meters measure the linear v) of a gas in a duct.
a. Volume, volume
b. Rate, rate
c. Velocity, velocity
28. True or False? Measurement of sampling flow rate and sampling time affects
the determination of the volume of air sampled.
29. Which of the following is not a(are not) type(s) of standard meters used to
calibrate air measuring devices?
a. primary standard meters
b. intermediate standard meters
c. secondary standard meters
d. tertiary standard meters
e. all of the above
30. v J standard meters are those whose volumes can be determined by
measurement of internal physical dimensions alone. Accuracies better than
±0.30% can be achieved.
a. Primary
b. Intermediate
c. Secondary
31. v/ standard meters are those that cannot easily be calibrated by
measuring physical dimensions, but can achieve accuracies of ±1 to 2%.
a. Primary
b. Intermediate
c. Secondary
32. (') standard meters are those calibrated against v) or
v*/ standard meters. Accuracies better than 5% can be achieved.
a. Secondary, primary, intermediate
b. Intermediate, primary, secondary
c. Primary, intermediate, secondary
A2-8
-------
For each of questions 33 through 44, match the air measuring device with its
appropriate diagram.
33. spirometer
34. displacement bottle technique
35. soap bubble meter
36. mercury-sealed piston
37. wet test meter
38. Roots meter
39. dry test meter
40. orifice meter
41. venturi meter
42. rotameter
43. standard pitot tube
44. S-type pitot tube
a.
Counter-
weights
Vertical
displacement
scale
Inlet or outlet fixture
Water
b.
Water manometer
Thermometer
A2-9
-------
c.
Gas inlet
Thermometer
Volume graduations
Movable proximity coil
Polyvinyl chloride piston
Stationary proximity coil
Gas outlet
Solenoid valve
d.
Gas inlet
Gas outlet
Sliding valves
Chambers
A2-10
-------
e.
Gas in
Gas out
Pressure taps
f.
Gas in
Gas out
Pressure taps
g-
Tubing Pipe
adapter coupling
Stainless steel
tubing
A2-11
-------
2-liter Class A
volumetric flask
l.
A2-12
-------
Top view
Air out
Float
Air in
1.
Hemispherical tip
Static pressure holes
Outer tube
Inner tube
A2-13
-------
For each of questions 45 through 57, match the air measuring device with its
appropriate description.
45. mass flow meter
46. spirometer
47. displacement
bottle technique
48. soap bubble meter
49. mercury-sealed
piston
50. wet test meter
51. Roots meter
52. dry test meter
53. orifice meter
54. venturi meter
55. rotameter
56. standard
pitot tube
57. S-type
pitot tube
a. This device works on the principle that as a gas
passes over a heated surface, heat is transferred
from the surface to the gas. The amount of current
required to keep the surface at a constant
temperature is a measure of the velocity of the gas.
b. This device consists of two identical tubes mounted
back to back. The sampling end of the tubes are
oval with the openings parallel to each other. In
use, one oval opening should point directly
upstream, the other directly downstream.
c. This device consists of a vertically graduated glass
tube, slightly tapered in bore, with the diameter
decreasing from top to bottom, containing a float of
the appropriate material and shape. The fluid to be
measured passes upward through the conical tube,
which is inserted in the flow circuit.
d. This device consists of a short cylindrical inlet, an
entrance cone, a short cylindrical throat, and finally
a diffuser cone. Two pressure taps, one in the cylin-
drical inlet and one in the throat, serve to measure
the pressure drop.
e. This device can consist of a thin plate having one
circular hole coaxial with the pipe into which it is
inserted. Two pressure taps, one upstream and one
downstream of the orifice, serve as a means of meas-
uring the pressure drop, which can be correlated to
the time rate of flow.
f. This device consists of two concentric tubes. The
center tube measures the impact pressure while the
static pressure is measured by the holes located on
the side of the outer tube.
g. The interior of this device contains two or more
movable partitions, or diaphragms, attached to the
case by a flexible material so that each partition
may have a reciprocating motion. The gas flow
alternately inflates and deflates each bellows
chamber, simultaneously actuating a set of slide
valves that shunt the incoming flow at the end of
each stroke. The inflation of the successive chambers
also actuates, through a crank, a set of dials that
register the volume of gas passed through the device.
A2-14
-------
h. This device consists of a series of inverted buckets or
traps mounted radially around a shaft and partially
immersed in water. The location of the entry and
exit gas ports is such that the entering gas fills a
bucket, displacing the water and causing the shaft
to rotate due to the lifting action of the bucket full
of air. The entrapped air is released at the upper
portion of the rotation and the bucket again fills
with water. In turning, the drum rotates index
pointers that register the volume of gas passed
through the meter.
i. This device consists of a cylinder of known volume,
closed at one end, with the open end submerged in
a circular tank of fluid. The cylinder can be opened
or closed to the atmosphere by a valve. As the
cylinder is lowered into the water, the water
displaces the air and causes it to be discharged from
the cylinder; the rate of discharge can be regulated.
j. This device consists basically of two oppositely
rotating impellers of two-lobe or "figure 8" contour,
operating within a rigid casing. The casing is
arranged with inlet and outlet gas connections on
opposite sides.
k. This device consists of a precision-bored, borosilicate
glass cylinder with a close fitting polyvinyl chloride
piston. The piston and cylinder wall are sealed with
a ring of mercury that stays in place because of its
high viscosity and the closenesss of the fit between
the cylinder and piston.
1. This device consists of a bottle filled with a liquid
and a tube through which air can enter the bottle.
As the liquid in the bottle is drained or siphoned
out, air is drawn in, to take the place of the volume
of liquid lost. The volume of gas sampled is equal to
the volume of liquid displaced. The volume of
displaced liquid is measured with a Class A
volumetric flask.
m. This device consists of a cylindrical glass tube with
graduated markings. Either a vacuum at the top or
slight positive pressure at the bottom of the tube
moves a soap bubble up the tube. By timing this
movement and noting the volume traversed by the
bubble, over the measured time span, volumetric
flow rate can be calculated.
A2-15
-------
For each of questions 58 through 70, match the air measuring device with its
appropriate category.
58. mass flow meter a. volume meter
59. spirometer b. variable pressure rate meter
60. displacement bottle technique c. variable area rate meter
61. soap bubble meter d. velocity meter
62. mercury-sealed piston
63. wet test meter
64. Roots meter
65. dry test meter
66. orifice meter
67. venturi meter
68. rotameter
69. standard pitot tube
70. S-type pitot tube
For each of questions 71 through 83, match the air measuring device with its
appropriate standard meter classification.
71. mass flow meter a. primary
72. spirometer b. intermediate
73. displacement bottle technique c. secondary
74. soap bubble meter
75. mercury-sealed piston
76. wet test meter
77. Roots meter
78. dry test meter
79. orifice meter
80. venturi meter
81. rotameter
82. standard pitot tube
83. S-type pitot tube
A2-16
-------
84. Which of the following equations is used to correct air volumes measured by
soap bubble meters and wet test meters to dry conditions?
d. Vc =
Where: V: = corrected volume
Ynmu = measured volume
P» = atmospheric pressure
P., = vapor pressure of water at the room's temperature during
measurement
85. True or False? The most accurate method of calibrating a soap bubble meter
is to measure its dimensions.
86. Wet test meters can be used to measure flow rates up to ( ' revolu-
tions per minute.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
87. True or False? Excessive paniculate matter in the gas stream being measured
can impede the operation of a Roots meter.
88. Which of the following is an(are) advantage(s) of a dry test meter over a wet
test meter?
a. Measured air volumes do not have to be corrected to dry conditions when
using a dry test meter.
b. Dry test meters are lighter and easier to use.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
A2-17
-------
89. Which of the following equations is used to correct air volumes measured by
volume meters to EPA's STP conditions?
a-
c.
\TiJ\Tj
Where: V2 = corrected volume of air at EPA's STP conditions
Y! = measured volume of air at PI and TI
TI = measured temperature of gas, K
T2 = 298 K
P! = measured pressure of gas, mm Hg
P2 = 760 mm Hg
90. Which of the following is a(are) category(ies) of rate meters?
a. variable pressure (head) meters
b. variable area meters
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
91. True or False? Variable pressure meters are those in which a stream of fluid
creates a significant pressure difference that can be measured and correlated
with the time rate of flow.
92. The pressure drop across a variable area meter v/ as the flow rate
through the variable area meter changes.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
93. The cross-sectional area of the annulus of a variable area meter (•'
as the flow rate through the variable area meter increases.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
94. True or False? A critical orifice is an orifice meter having a pressure drop such
that any further decrease in its downstream pressure or increase in its upstream
pressure will not change the gas flow rate through it.
A2-18
-------
95. Which one of the following figures depicts a critical orifice calibration curve?
a.
o
£
b.
C.
-------
96. True or False? Gas density affects flow rate measurements made by rotameters.
97. Which of the following equations is used to correct flow rates measured by rate
meters to EPA's STP conditions?
Where: Q^ = corrected flow rate at EPA's STP conditions
Qi = measured flow rate at PI and TI
TI = measured temperature of gas, K
T2=298K
PI = measured pressure of gas, mm Hg
P2 = 760 mm Hg
98. True or False? Under typical sampling conditions, gas temperature and
pressure affect flow rate measurements made by mass flow meters.
99. True or False? Thermal properties of gases affect flow rate measurements
made by mass flow meters.
A2-20
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Section A-2
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. True 3-1
2. g 3-2,3-3,3-4
3. c 3-2
4. d 3-3
5. c 3-3
6. b 3-5
7. a 3-6
8. d 3-6
9. c 3-7
10. b 3-8
11. a 3-8
12. False 3-9
13. a 3-10
14. True 3-12
15. d 3-13
16. True 3-14, 3-15
17. d 3-15,3-16
18. b 3-16
19. True 3-16
20. e 3-17
21. c 3-17
22. True 3-18
23. d 3-18
24. d 3-18
25. a 3-18
26. b 3-19
27. c 3-19
28. True 3-19
29. d 3-19
30. a 3-19
31. b 3-19
32. a 3-19
33. a 3-20
34. h 3-22,3-30
35. i .x 3-24
36. c 3-26
37. b 3-29
38. j 3-32
A2-21
-------
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
39. d 3-34
40. e 3-36
41. f 3-38
42. k 3-39
43. 1 3-43
44. g 3-44
45. a 3-45
46. i 3-20
47. 1 3-22,3-23
48. m 3-23,3-24
49. k 3-25
50. h 3-28
51. j 3-31
52. g 3-35
53. e 3-36
54. d 3-38
55. c 3-39
56. f 3-42
57. b 3-44
58. d 3-40,3-45
59. a 3-20
60. a 3-20,3-22
61. a 3-20,3-23
62. a 3-20,3-25
63. a 3-20,3-28
64. a 3-20,3-31
65. a 3-20,3-33
66. b 3-36
67. b 3-36,3-38
68. c 3-38,3-39
69. d 3-40,3-42
70. d 3-40, 3-44
71. c 3-45
72. a 3-20
73. a 3-22
74. a 3-23
75. a 3-23,3-25
76. b 3-28
77. b 3-31
78. b 3-33
79. c 3-36
80. c 3-38
81. c 3-39
82. a 3-42
A2-22
-------
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
83. c 3-44
84. c 3-25,3-30
85. False 3-25
86. b 3-31
87. True 3-31
88. c 3-35
89. a 3-21,3-24, 3-33
90. c 3-36,3-38
91. True 3-36
92. c 3-38
93. a 3-39
94. True 3-37
95. c 3-37
96. True 3-40
97. d 3-37,3-40
98. False 3-45
99. True 3-45
A2-23
-------
Section A-3
Inertial Sampling for Particulate Matter
Reading Assignment
Pages 4-1 through 4-30 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
Principles of inertial sampling devices
Types of inertial sampling devices
Collection efficiency of impactors
Sources of error in inertial sampling
Applications of inertial sampling devices
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with the inertial sampling of
particulate matter.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. recognize the distribution and respirability of panicles in ambient air.
2. identify at least six inertial collection devices used for ambient particulate
matter sampling.
3. identify optimum conditions for sampling ambient particulate matter using
inertial collection devices.
4. define inertial and centrifugal sampling of particulate matter.
5. recognize two applications of inertial sampling devices and identify at least
five sources of error in the inertial sampling of particulate matter.
6. name the two major inertial collection mechanisms for particulate matter.
7. define the particulate matter collection efficiency of an impactor.
A3-1
-------
Reading Guidance
• Refer often to the equations and figures of the assigned reading material as
you progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section A-3. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any), take Quiz 1. Follow
the directions listed in the Course Introduction section of this guidebook.
• After completing Quiz 1, proceed to Section A-4 of this guidebook.
A3-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section A-3, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are mas-
tering the material.
1. True or False? Ambient air particles having diameters of about 0.4 /an are
mostly manmade, while a significant portion of particles with diameters of
about 10 fan are caused by natural processes.
2. Particles having diameters of approximately (*/ fan or less are
generally thought to be inhaled into the lower respiratory system.
a. 10
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
For each of questions 3 through 10, match the paniculate sampling method or
device with its appropriate description.
3. virtual impactor
4. cyclone sampler
5. cascade impactor
6. single stage impactor
7. inertial sampling
8. irnpinger
9. air centrifuge
10. centrifugal sampling
a. This method is based on the principle that the
momentum of a particle in a moving air stream
will cause the particle to be deflected less than the
air in the vicinity of the particle when the air
stream undergoes a sudden change in direction.
b. An impaction sampler which contains one jet
and one collection surface.
c. This impaction device consists of several impaction
stages arranged in a series.
d. The jet and striking surface of this device are
immersed in a collecting fluid.
e. In this method, particles are removed from an air
stream by the force created by moving an aerosol
rapidly through a circular path.
f. This device, which contains no moving parts, is
designed so that air drawn through it will move in
either a circular or a helical path of decreasing
radius in order to increase the collection efficiency
of small particles. The sample air stream surges
through the device and the particles of the air
stream are separated at the inside surface of the
device's wall by centrifugal force.
(g. and h. are listed on the following page)
A3-3
-------
g. In this device, the sample air passes between two
concentric cones. The inner cone is rotated by a
motor and draws air in at the narrow upper end
of the cones and exhausts the air at the large end
of the cones. Particles of the air stream are col-
lected on the inside surface of the outer cone.
h. In this device, larger particles are impacted into a
slowly pumped void and are collected on a filter
downstream of the void.
11. True or False? Impaction and impingement are major general inertial collec-
tion mechanisms for particulate matter.
12. True or False? Impaction devices collect and retain particles of an air stream
on a surface.
13. True or False? Overlapping of particle size samples occurs when impactors are
used to collect particulate matter.
14. True or False? The collection efficiency of a cyclone sampler is affected by the
flow rate of sample air through the sampler.
15. True or False? The collection efficiency of an impactor can be defined as the
fraction of the particles in an incident aerosol stream that is retained on the
collection surface of the impactor.
16. True or False? The particle size collection range of an impactor or an impactor
stage should be narrow enough that a functional size separation can be
made.
17. The D50 for the impaction device whose particle size collection efficiency is
depicted below is v* /un.
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
1.00
0.75
0.50
0.25
0.5 1.0 1.5
Panicle size (/tm)
18. Which of the following particle characteristics affect(s) the collection efficiency
of an inertial sampling device?
a. particle size
b. particle density
c. both a and b, above
A3-4
-------
19. True or False? Impaction devices are inefficient collectors of high density
particles.
20. Which of the following characteristics of an inertial sampling device affect(s)
its collection efficiency?
a. jet size
b. jet shape
c. distance between jet and collection surface
d. collection surface
e. all of the above
21. As the jet size of an impactor v) the impaction velocity v)
a. increases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. decreases, increases
22. True or False? The collection efficiency of an impaction device is not affected
by the flow rate of sample air through the device.
23. True or False? Changing the shape of an impaction device's jets from round to
rectangular greatly affects the device's collection efficiency.
24. As the distance between an impactor's jet and its collection surface
y) , the angle of deflection of an aerosol stream passing through the
impactor (_'_
a. decreases, increases
b. increases, increases
c. decreases, decreases
25. The angle of deflection of an aerosol stream passing through an impaction
device must v) in order for the device to remove small particles of the
aerosol stream.
a. be small
b. be large
c. remain constant
26. True or False? Particle retention is greatest for flat impaction surfaces.
27. Inertial sampling devices have been used for which of the following?
a. particle size distribution studies
b. gross sampling
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
28. True or False? For microscopic analysis, it is desirable to collect a paniculate
matter sample on the viewing surface that is intended to be used for the
analysis.
29. True or False? The particle diameter corresponding to the 50% fraction of a
cumulative weight distribution curve for a paniculate sample is the sample's
mass median diameter.
A3-5
-------
30. Which of the following is not a potential source of error in inertial sampling?
a. particle shattering
b. particle bounce
c. particle re-entrainment
d. wall losses
e. collection device calibration
f. sample analysis error
g. none of the above
A3-6
-------
Section A-3
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. True 4-1,4-2
2. a 4-1,4-2
3. h 4-17
4. f 4-15
5. c 4-6
6. b 4-5
7. a 4-3
8. d 4-14
9. g 4-16
10. e 4-15
11. True 4-4
12. True 4-5
13. True 4-9
14. True 4-15
15. True 4-24
16. True 4-24
17. b 4-24,4-25
18. c 4-25
19. False 4-25
20. e 4-26,4-27
21. c 4-26
22. False 4-26
23. False 4-26
24. a 4-26
25. b 4-26
26. True 4-27
27. c 4-29,4-30
28. True 4-30
29. True 4-30
30. g 4-27,4-28,4-29
A3-7
-------
Section A-4
Introduction to Pertinent Statistical
Techniques for Air Monitoring
Reading Assignment
Pages 10-1 through 10-17 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• Data plots
• Measures of central tendency
• Measures of dispersion
• Distribution curves
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with statistical techniques per-
taining to air monitoring.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. identify and define the two statistical variables associated with atmospheric
sampling data.
2. construct a data frequency table, frequency polygon, histogram, and
cumulative frequency distribution curve from a given set of air quality data.
3. describe a data distribution.
4. use probability graph paper in analyzing air quality data.
5. define and use linear regression.
6. calculate and recognize the usefulness of the arithmetic mean, median,
geometric mean, and range.
7. recognize normal and log normal distribution curves.
8. identify equations used to calculate and recognize the usefulness of the
standard deviation and the standard geometric deviation.
A4-1
-------
Reading Guidance
• Refer often to the equations, example calculations, and figures of the assigned
reading material as you progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section A-4. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any), proceed to Section B-l
of this guidebook.
A4-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section A-4, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are
mastering the material.
1. Which of the following is a(are) general variable(s)?
a. continuous variable
b. discrete variable
c. both a and b, above
2. True or False? A continuous variable is one that can assume any value within
some interval of values.
3. True or False? Discrete variables are those whose possible values are intergers.
4. As a rule of thumb, a data frequency table should consist of w data
class intervals.
a. 1 to 3
b. 3 to 5
c. 8 to 15
d. 20 to 30
A4-3
-------
5. Which one of the following frequency polygons represents the data given in the
frequency table below?
Frequency table
a.
8
3
u
u
u
cr
u
20
16
12
8
4
Class
interval
0-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
40-50
50-60
60-70
70-80
80-90
90-100
Frequency
of occurrence
10
15
18
12
10
10
8
7
5
5
25 45
65
85 105
b.
u
3
£
20
I 16
§ 12
Class interval midpoint
5 25 45 65 85 105
Class interval midpoint
c.
20
8
I 16
8 12
u
a-
i i i r
5 25 45 65 85 105
Class interval midpoint
d.
20
8
I 16
* 12
Q
3 4.
O- 4
I T
5 25 45 65 85 105
Class interval midpoint
A4-4
------- An error occurred while trying to OCR this image.
-------
7. Which one of the following cumulative frequency distribution curves represents
the data given in the histogram below?
41 -S1
e S
8-a
= >
u C
u i
c 2
w -
20
16
12
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
a.
c
ra
ft r*
~ I
(0 *W
C (3
O i;
s g
> (i
o
"!5
8
!'Eb
100
80
60
40
20
b.
0 20 40 60 80
Concentration (ppb)
100
cfl
S S
.2 i:
ti c
(Q flj
2 y
^ §
J3 U
- £
id >
o 'Go
100
eo
40
20
20 40 60 80
Concentration (ppb)
100
c.
c
(B
t/i f*
* O
0 i:
| £
fc c
^ g
.0 U
-
o
100
80
60
40
20
d.
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
e
a
0
15
cT
100
80
II 60
'" C
> S
40
20
20 40 60 80 100
Concentration (ppb)
A4-6
-------
8. Which of the following is a(are) basic characteristic(s) of data distributions?
a. central location
b. dispersion
c. skewness
d. all of the above
9. In the figure below, curve
10.
11.
is skewed to the left, and curve
a. A, B, C
b. B, C, A
c. C, B, A
d. A, C, B
is skewed to the right, curve
(•) is not skewed.
=-,
u
c
«j
3
cr
-4-3-2-1 012 34 5678
Data values
True or False? When the arithmetic and logarithmic scales of a data
cumulative frequency distribution curve are plotted on probability graph
paper, the scale which causes the frequency distribution curve to be more
nearly a straight line better approximates a normal data distribution.
The v) percentile of a data set's cumulative frequency distribution
curve plotted on probability graph paper is an estimate of the mean of the
data set.
a. 25th
b. 50th
c. 75th
d. 100th
12. The distance between the
percentile and the
(•)
percentile
of a data set's cumulative frequency distribution curve plotted on probability
graph paper is an estimate of the standard deviation of the data set.
a. 75th, 50th
b. 50th, 25th
c. 50th, 16th
d. 35th, 14th
13. True or False? Linear regression is the mathematical process of minimizing the
vertical distance between all the points of a data set and a straight line
represented by the data set.
A4-7
-------
14. Which one of the following equations gives the best straight line using the data
set below?
a. y=1.13x-2.0
b. y = 0.87x + 2.8
c. y=1.72x+3.0
d. y=1.67x + 3.3
4
10
16
10
20
30
For each of questions 15 through 17, match the parameter with its value for the
following data set: 2, 4, 8, and 12.
15. mean a. 10
16. median b. 6.5
17. range c. 6
v) influence on the data set's mean
18. Extreme values of a data set have v)
than(as) on the data set's median.
a. greater
b. lesser
c. the same
19. The geometric mean of a data set consisting of five data values is calculated by
taking the v) root of the vv of the five data values.
a. square, product
b. square, sum
c. 5th, sum
d. 5th, product
20. The geometric mean of a log normally distributed data set gives v)
measure of the data set's central location as(than does) the data set's arithmetic
mean.
a. the same
b. a more accurate
c. a less accurate
21. True or False? The standard deviation is the most commonly used measure of
dispersion for a normally distributed data set.
A4-8
-------
22. Which one of the following equations is the most accurate and easiest to use
for calculating standard deviation?
a.
b.
n-1
c. antilog
d. antilog
n— 1
n
n-1
Where: X, = a data value
X = the mean of the data sample
n = the number of observations
23. True or False? The standard geometric deviation is an appropriate measure of
the dispersion of a log normally distributed data set.
24. Which one of the following equations is the most accurate and easiest to use
for calculating standard geometric deviation?
a.
n-1
b l/n£X.»-(£X,)«
V n(n-l)
c. ant:
d. antilog
£(logX)«-(£logX)«
n
n-1
Where: X, = a data value
X = the mean of the data sample
n = the number of observations
A4-9
-------
25. Which of the following is a(are) characteristic(s) of a normal (Gaussian)
distribution curve?
a. it has symmetry
b. its mean and median are both found in the center of the curve
c. it has an infinite range
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
v
For each of questions 26 through 28, match the normal (Gaussian) distribution
curve parameter with its corresponding percent area under the normal curve.
26. ±1 standard deviation from the mean a. 50.4%
27. ± 2 standard deviations from the mean b. 68.2%
28. ± 3 standard deviations from the mean c. 95.4%
d. 99.7%
For each of questions 29 and 30, match the data distribution curve with its
appropriate figure.
29. normal (Gaussian)
distribution curve
a.
30. log normal
distribution curve
u
V
I
U.
Data values
u
I
c-
V
Data values
31. True or False? A data value of a data set that is more than ± 3 standard
deviations away from the mean of the data set is probably an erroneous value.
A4-10
-------
Section A-4
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. c 10-1
2. True 10-1
3. True 10-1
4. c 10-3
5. a 10-2,10-3
6. a 10-3,10-4
7. b 10-4,10-5
8. d 10-5
9. b 10-5,10-6
10. True 10-7,10-8
11. b 10-8
12. c 10-8
13. True 10-8
14. d 10-9,10-10
15. b 10-10
16. c 10-11
17. a 10-13
18. a 10-11
19. d 10-11,10-12
20. b 10-12
21. True 10-13
22. b 10-13
23. True 10-14
24. d 10-14
25. e 10-14,10-15
26. b 10-15,10-16
27. c 10-15,10-16
28. d 10-15,10-16
29. a 10-14
30. b 10-17
31. True 10-16
A4-11
-------
Part B
-------
Section B-l
High Volume Sampling of Particulate
Matter and Evaluation of Filter Media
Reading Assignment
Pages 4-31 through 4-84 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• High volume air sampling
• Evaluation of filter media
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with the high volume sampling of
paniculate matter and filters used for paniculate matter sampling.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. recognize at least three major components of a high volume sampler.
2. identify and give the locations of at least five components of a calibration
set-up for calibrating a high volume sampler orifice-type flow rate transfer
standard.
3. recognize that a flow rate transfer standard is needed to calibrate a high
volume sampler's flow rate measuring device.
4. compare a calibration curve for a high volume sampler flow rate transfer
standard to a high volume sampler flow rate measuring device calibration
curve.
5. identify and describe how to minimize potential sources of error in high
volume sampling.
6. recognize the use of Reference Flow (ReF) devices for auditing flow rate
calibrations of high volume samplers.
7. identify at least four components of a high volume sampler that need
periodic cleaning or replacement.
8. recognize at least four reasons for using a shelter when sampling suspended
paniculate matter using a high volume sampler.
Bl-1
-------
9. name at least two devices that can be used to modify a high volume sampler
for sampling inhalable paniculate matter.
10. identify three objectives of high volume sampling.
11. calculate suspended paniculate matter concentration from high volume
sampling and analysis data.
12. identify three advantages and two disadvantages of using filters as the collec-
tion medium for paniculate matter sampling.
13. name at least four filtration mechanisms and describe how they are affected
by filter and sampling conditions.
14. define three terms used to express filter collection efficiency.
15. recognize advantages and disadvantages of cellulose, glass fiber, and
membrane filters.
Reading Guidance
• Refer often to the figures, equations, and example calculations of the high
volume air sampling portion of the assigned reading material as you progress
through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section B-l. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any) proceed to Section B-2
of this guidebook.
Bl-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section B-l, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are
mastering the material.
1. Which of the following is a(are) major component(s) of a high volume
sampler?
a. modified vacuum cleaner motor
b. stainless steel filter holder
c. photodetector
d. both a and b, above
e. both a and c, above
2. Which of the following is a(are) reason(s) for the use of a shelter when
sampling suspended particulate matter using a high volume sampler?
a. Shelter protects filter from direct impact of particulate matter.
b. Shelter uniformly distributes particulate matter over the filter surface.
c. Shelter prevents birds from damaging filter.
d. both b and c, above
e. both a and b, above
3. True or False? When using a high volume sampler, the sampling flow rate
affects the size of particles collected.
4. Which of the following is not a reason for the use of glass fiber filters in
routine high volume sampling?
a. They have collection efficiencies of at least 99%.
b. They have low resistance to air flow.
c. They have low affinity for moisture.
d. They are suitable for the analysis of many organic and inorganic particulate
pollutants.
e. They cost less than other filters.
5. In order to eliminate weigh errors due to small amounts of moisture, both
unexposed and exposed glass fiber filters should be equilibrated at
v) °C and less than (?) % relative humidity for 24 hours
before weighing.
a. 0-5, 50
b. 15-35, 25
c. 15-30, 50
d. 15-35, 75
6. True or False? Blank concentrations of pollutants in clean glass fiber filters
should be taken into account when analyzing exposed filters for pollutants.
Bl-S
-------
7. Which of the following is a(are) disadvantage(s) of using cellulose filters for
high volume sampling?
a. By rapidly clogging, they cause sampling flow rates to dramatically
decrease.
b. They have low ash and metal content.
c. They enhance the artifact formation of sulfates and nitrates.
d. both a and c, above
e. both b and c, above
8. True or False? Folding or creasing a high volume filter before sampling may
cause erroneous flow patterns through the filter during sampling.
9. True or False? If an exposed high volume filter's border is fuzzy or nonexistent,
sample air may have leaked under the filter's gasket during sampling.
10. True or False? After sampling, an exposed high volume filter should be folded
in half lengthwise so that collected paniculate matter on one half of the filter
does not touch collected particulate matter on the other half of the filter, for
transport to the laboratory for analysis.
11. Which of the following is a(are) device(s) used to measure sampling flow rates
of high volume samplers?
a. orifice/pressure indicators
b. mass flowmeters
c. Roots meters
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
12. In the calibration set-up for a high volume sampler flow rate transfer standard
depicted below a, b, c, d, and e are the (?) respectively.
a. water manometer, mercury
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
Roots meter, and
high volume motor
b. mercury manometer, water
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
Roots meter, and
high volume motor
c. mercury manometer, water
manometer, high volume
motor, Roots meter, and
flow rate transfer
standard
d. water manometer, mercury
manometer, flow rate
transfer standard,
high volume motor,
and Roots meter
Bl-4
-------
13. The U.S. EPA high volume sampling procedure requires that high volume
samplers be operated at sampling flow rates of (?) to (?)
mVmin.
a. 1.0, 2.0
b. 1.1, 1.7
c. 1.0, 1.5
14. A calibration curve for a high volume sampler flow rate transfer standard is
constructed by plotting (?) versus (?) .
a. standard flow rate,
b. flow rate transfer standard pressure drop, Roots meter pressure drop
c. standard flow rate, VAH(P1/P.,(i)(298/T1)
d. standard flow rate, indicated flow rate
15. Which of the following items is(are) needed to calibrate a high volume sampler's
flow rate measuring device?
a. rotameter
b. elutriator
c. mass flow controller
d. both a and b, above
e. flow rate transfer standard
f. all of the above
16. Which of the following equations is used to correct air volumes measured by
positive displacement standard volume meters to standard air volumes for the
calibration of high volume sampler flow rate transfer standards?
( p- \ T"'
\Pnd-APj Tj
P,-AP\ Tad
a.
b.
'P,-AP\ T!
TW1<
d.
P,-AP\ T,td
Pstd
Where: V«d = standard volume, std m3
Vm = actual volume measured by the standard volume meter
P! = barometric pressure during calibration, mm Hg or kPa
AP = pressure drop at inlet to volume meter, mm Hg or kPa
P«rf= 760 mm Hg or 101 kPa
= ambient temperature during calibration, K.
Bl-5
-------
17. A calibration curve for a high volume sampler flow rate measuring device is
constructed by plotting v). versus W .
a. standard flow rates, appropriately expressed flow rates indicated by the high
volume sampler's flow rate measuring device
b. flow rate transfer standard pressure drops, appropriately expressed flow
rates indicated by the high volume sampler's flow rate measuring
device
c. standard flow rates, flow rate transfer standard pressure drops
18. Which of the following is a(are) potential source(s) of error in high volume
sampling?
a. nonuniform flow rate changes during sampling
b. wind directional sensitivity caused by the gabled roof of the high volume
sampler's shelter
c. artifact paniculate matter formation on alkaline high volume filters
d. all of the above
19. Which of the following devices can minimize errors caused by nonuniform
changes in high volume sampler flow rates during sampling?
a. pressure transducer with continuous recorder for flow rate
b. constant flow rate controllers
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
20. True or False? A Reference Flow (ReF) device can be used to audit the flow
rate calibrations of high volume samplers.
21. True or False? Mass flow controllers maintain a constant high volume sampler
flow rate by adjusting the speed of the high volume sampler's motor during
sampling.
22. Which of the following devices can be used to modify a high volume sampler
for sampling inhalable paniculate matter?
a. pressure transducers
b. cyclone separators
c. size selective inlets
d. both b and c, above
e. both a and b, above
23. True or False? Slightly increasing the line voltage to a high volume sampler's
motor will increase motor brush life.
24. Which of the following components of a high volume sampler does not need
periodic cleaning or replacement?
a. flow rate measuring device
b. tubing used in flow rate indication
c. faceplate gasket
d. motor gaskets
e. none of the above
Bl-6
-------
25. Which of the following is a(are) possible objective(s) of ambient high volume
sampling?
a. determination of the nature and magnitude of paniculate pollutants in a
given area
b. prediction of particulate pollutant trends
c. determination of particulate matter emission rates from stacks
d. both a and b, above
e. both b and c, above
26 True or False? High volume samplers provide continuous "real-time" par-
ticulate concentration data.
27. Under the conditions described below, the suspended particulate concentration
obtained using a high volume sampler is v/ /ig/std m3.
a. 107
b. 94
c. 100
d. 6
Given: Weight of filter after sampling: 3.216 g
Weight of filter before sampling: 3.000 g
Initial sampling flow rate: 1.60 std mVmin
Final sampling flow rate: 1.40 std mVmin
Sampling period: midnight 7-11-81 to midnight 7-12-81
28. Which of the following is an(are) advantage(s) of using filters for particulate
sampling?
a. Large sampling flow rates can be used.
b. The particulate sample is usually readily available for direct observation
after sampling.
c. Filters alone can adequately separate particulate matter into different size
ranges.
d. both a and b, above
e. both b and c, above
29. Which of the following is a(are) disadvantage(s) of using filters for particulate
sampling?
a. Filters of the same type often vary in their physical and chemical properties.
b. Filters alone cannot adequately separate particulate matter into different
size ranges.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
30. Which of the following contributes to the collection of particulate matter by
filters?
a. diffusion
b. direct interception
c. inertial collection
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
Bl-7
-------
31. Particle diffusion rate v) as the linear air flow velocity through a
filter increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
32. Particle diffusion rate v) as panicle radius increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
33. Particle diffusion rate v/ as filter interfiber distance increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
34. True or False? Filter collection of particles by direct interception is analogous
to mechanical straining.
35. Particle direct interception rate v/ as particle size increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
36. Particle direct interception rate v) as filter interfiber distance
increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
37. Particle direct interception rate v) as filter fiber diameter increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
38. Within an optimum range of velocities, particle inertial collection rate
( •) as the air flow velocity through a filter increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
39. Particle inertial collection rate v) as particle density increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
40. Particle inertial collection rate v) as particle size increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
Bl-8
-------
41. Particle inertial collection rate v) as filter fiber diameter increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
42. Particles having electrical charges which are v) the electrical charge
of a filter fiber are attracted to the filter.
a. the same as
b. opposite to
c. neutral to
43. True or False? Electrical forces probably contribute to the collection of par-
ticles which are smaller than filter pore size.
44. Particle re-entrainment v) as the filter face velocity increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
For each of questions 45 through 47, match the term with its appropriate
definition.
45. percent penetration a. percentage of the mass of particles that
46. percent collection is collected by a filter
.- „ . ,~ . b. percentage of particles of a specified size
47. mass collection efficiency , , r, _, r ._ .
that pass through a filter at a specified
linear air flow velocity
c. percentage of particles of a specified size
that is collected by a filter at a specified
linear air flow velocity
48. Which of the following measures of filter collection efficiency would usually
give misleading collection efficiency information.
a. percent penetration
b. percent collection
c. mass collection efficiency
d. all of the above
49. Which of the following is an(are) effect(s) of previously collected paniculate
matter on the filter collection of particles during sampling?
a. increases filter collection eficiency
b. possibly interferes with the sampling process by decreasing the flow rate of
sample air through the filter
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
Bl-9
-------
50. Which of the following is a(are) general category(ies) of filters?
a. cellulose fiber
b. glass fiber
c. membrane
d. both b and c, above
e. all of the above
For each of questions 51 through 53, match the general category of filters with its
appropriate list of advantages.
a. can withstand high temperatures, have high
collection efficiency, nonhygroscopic, and
can withstand corrosive atmospheres
b. have low ash and metal content
c. enhance the microscopic analysis of par-
ticulate matter, have low ash content, and
are generally soluble in many organic
solvents
51. cellulose fiber
52. glass fiber
53. membrane
For each of questions 54 through 56, match the general category of filters with its
appropriate list of disadvantages.
a. have high affinity for moisture, irreversibly
absorb water, and enhance the artifact
formation of sulfate and nitrate
b. are fragile, difficult to ash, and absorb
acid gases
c. are very brittle and cause appreciable
pressure drops during sampling
54. cellulose fiber
55. glass fiber
56. membrane
57. True or False? The absorption of acid gases by glass fiber filters can be
minimized by using glass fiber filters which have a neutral pH.
Bl-10
-------
Section B-l
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. d 4-31
2. e 4-32
3. True 4-32
4. e 4-34,4-35
5. c 4-34
6. True 4-35
7. d 4-35,4-36
8. True 4-37
9. True 4-38
10. False 4-38
11. d 4-39
12. b 4-41
13. b 4-47
14. c 4-43
15. e 4-44
16. d 4-43
17. a 4-46
18. d 4-52,4-53,4-55
19. c 4-52,4-53
20. True 4-55
21. True 4-52
22. d 4-58
23. False 4-56,4-57
24. e 4-56,4-57
25. d 4-58,4-60
26. False 4-61
27. c 4-49,4-61
28. d 4-63
29. c 4-63,4-64
30. e 4-64,4-65
31. c 4-66
32. c 4-66
33. b 4-66
34. True 4-64
35. b 4-64
36. c 4-67
37. c 4-67
38. b 4-67
Bl-11
-------
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
39. b 4-68
40. b 4-68
41. c 4-68
42. b 4-65
43. True 4-65
44. b 4-65
45. b : 4-65
46. c 4-65
47. a 4-66
48. c 4-66
49. c 4-68
50. e 4-69
51. b 4-69,4-70
52. a 4-70
53. c 4-80
54. a 4-69
55. b 4-70
56. c 4-72,4-73
57. True 4-70
Bl-12
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Section B-2
Manual Sampling of Gaseous Pollutants
Reading Assignment
Pages 5-1 through 5-39 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• Absorption of gaseous pollutants
• Adsorption of gaseous pollutants
• Grab sampling
• Freezeout sampling
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this lesson is to familiarize you with manual sampling techniques
for the sampling of gaseous pollutants.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. identify at least nine terms associated with the sampling of gaseous
pollutants using absorption or adsorption devices.
2. recognize at least seven desirable qualities for a solvent to be used in a
physical absoprtion process.
3. name at least two conditions that are necessary for the adequate collection of
a gaseous pollutant using a physical absorption process.
4. recognize at least three criteria for selecting an absorbent to be used in a
chemical absorption process.
5. identify and describe the effects of at least five sampling conditions on the
collection efficiencies of liquid absorbers.
6. recognize the most accurate method for determining the collection
efficiency of a liquid absorber.
7. name one advantage and two disadvantages of fritted-glass absorbers.
8. identify and describe the effects of at least four sampling conditions on the
adsorption of gaseous pollutants.
9. define adsorption isotherm and associate general adsorption isotherms with
chemical and physical adsorption processes.
B2-1
-------
10. recognize at least seven desirable qualities for an adsorbent to be used in
gaseous pollutant sampling.
11. identify characteristics of polar and nonpolar adsorbents.
12. recognize at least four typical problems associated with adsorption air
sampling.
13. identify four grab sampling devices and five potential grab sampling
problems associated with atmospheric sampling.
14. recognize the freezeout sampling method for ambient air pollutants.
Reading Guidance
• Refer often to the figures of the assigned reading material as you progress
through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section B-2. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any) proceed to Section B-3
of this guidebook.
B2-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section B-2, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are
mastering the material.
For each of questions 1 through 9, match the stated term with its appropriate
definition.
1. absorption a. the usually reversible process of dissolving
2. absorbate a pollutant in a liquid
3. absorbent b- t^ie process by which gases are attracted,
. , . , , . concentrated, and retained at a boundary
4. physical absorption „ ' 7
surface
5. adsorption , .
c. adsorption caused by van der Waals inter -
. a or a e actions, dipole-dipole interactions, and
7. adsorbent electrostatic interactions
8. chemical adsorption d. the process of combining gas molecules with an
9. physical adsorption adsorbent to form a surface compound
e. the process of transferring one or more gaseous
components into a liquid or solid medium
f. an absorbing medium
g. an absorbed substance
h. an adsorbing medium
i. an adsorbed substance
10. Which of the following is a(are) general absorption mechanism(s)?
a. physical absorption
b. chemical absorption
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
11. Which of the following is a(are) desirable quality(ies) for a solvent to be used
in a physical absorption process?
a. relatively nonvolatile
b. nonpolar
c. noncorrosive
d. both a and b, above
e. both a and c, above
B2-3
-------
12. Which of the following conditions is(are) necessary for the adequate collection
of a gaseous pollutant using a physical absorption process?
a. high pollutant solubility in the absorbing medium
b. small pollutant to absorbing medium ratio
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
13. Which of the following should be considered when choosing an absorbent for a
chemical absorption pollutant sampling process?
a. pollutant solubility in absorbent
b. reactive properties of the pollutant and the absorbent
c. both a and b, above
d. method of pollutant analysis
e. all of the above
14. Which of the following affect(s) the collection efficiency of a liquid absorber?
a. sample air flow rate
b. bubble size
c. height of the liquid (absorbent) column
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
15. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber v/ as the flow rate of
sample air passing through it increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
16. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber v) as the sample air
bubble size decreases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
17. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber v) as the length of its
absorbent column increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
18. True or False? The sensitivity of the method used to analyze the pollutant col-
lected in a liquid absorber may limit the height of the absorber's liquid column.
19. True or False? The absorbing solution of a liquid absorber should contain an
excess of reactant in order to ensure that all the pollutant that is being sam-
pled is collected and that the reaction rate between the pollutant and the
reactant is at a maximum.
B2-4
-------
20. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber v) as the sampled
pollutant's solubility in its absorbent increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
21. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber v/ as the sampled
pollutant's partial pressure (concentration) increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
22. The collection efficiency of a liquid absorber usually (') as sampling
temperature increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
23. True or False? The most accurate method of determining the collection effi-
ciency of a liquid absorber is testing it under simulated sampling conditions.
24. Which of the following is a(are) general liquid absorber(s)?
a. fritted-glass absorbers
b. impingers
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
25. True or False? Impingers have somewhat higher collection efficiencies than
fritted-glass absorbers.
26. Which of the following is a(are) disadvantage(s) of fritted-glass absorbers?
a. possibility of surface reactions at the frit
b. fritted-glass absorbers having frit pore sizes of approximately 50 ;im or less
gradually become clogged with use
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
27. Which of the following is a(are) general adsorption mechanism(s)?
a. physical adsorption
b. chemical adsorption
c. both a and b, above
28. True or False? Critical temperature may be defined as that temperature above
which it is impossible to liquify a gas regardless of the external pressure
applied to the gas.
29. The ability of a gas to be adsorbed (*/ as gas boiling point increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
B2-5
-------
30. The ability of a gas to be adsorbed v as gas critical temperature
increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
31. True or False? Chemical adsorption is enhanced by higher sampling
temperatures.
32. True or False? Physical adsorption is usually limited to monolayer molecular
adsorption.
33. True or False? Chemical adsorption usually involves multilayer molecular
adsorption.
34. Which of the following is an(are) optimum condition(s) for the physical
adsorption of a gas?
a. low adsorbate concentration
b. large adsorbing surface
c. no molecules other than adsorbate molecules competing for adsorption sites
d. high temperature
e. both b and c, above
f. all of the above
35. The ability of a gas to be adsorbed v/ as its concentration increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
36. True or False? An adsorption isotherm describes the relationship between the
quantity of a gas adsorbed at a constant temperature and the gas's concentra-
tion or pressure.
B2-6
-------
37. Which of the general adsorption isotherms depicted below is(are) associated
with chemical adsorption?
a.
T)
V
,0
ra
>
C
ns
3
cr
CA
fO
O
Gas concentration
or pressure
d. all of the above
38. Which of the general adsorption isotherms depicted in question 37 is(are)
associated with physical adsorption?
a. isotherm a
b. isotherm b
c. isotherm c
d. isotherms a and b
e. isotherms a, b, and c
B2-7
-------
39. For a gas to be adequately collected by physical adsorption, it must have a
molecular weight that is v) the molecular weight of the normal
components of air.
a. the same as
b. larger than
c. smaller than
40. True or False? For a gas to be adequately collected by physical adsorption, its
particles must be small enough to allow Brownian motion or gas velocities to
effectively cause contact of the gas with the adsorbent.
41. An adsorbate's adsorption rate (^ as the number of other substances
competing for adsorption sites of the adsorbent increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
42. Which of the following is not a desirable quality for an adsorbent?
a. granular
b. high resistance to air flow
c. inert except for a specific adsorbate
d. resistant to breakage, deterioration, and corrosion
e. easily activated
f. provides an easy release of adsorbate
g. high adsorptive capacity
43. An adsorbent's collection efficiency v) as its surface area increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
44. True or False? Adsorbent activation involves distilling out various impurities
from the adsorbent, thus forming a larger free surface area for adsorption.
45. True or False? Adsorbent pore size is an important consideration when
selecting an adsorbent to collect a particular adsorbate.
46. True or False? The chemical nature of the surface of an adsorbent does not
affect the adsorbent's collection efficiency.
47. Which of the following is a(are) general adsorbent property(ies)?
a. polar (exhibiting strong polarity)
b. nonpolar (exhibiting little or no polarity)
c. both a and b, above
B2-8
-------
For each of questions 48 through 50, match the adsorbent with its appropriate
characteristic(s).
48. polar a. prefers molecules that have little or no polarity
49. nonpolar b. strongly prefers polar molecules
50. molecular sieve c. strongly prefers polar molecules, has very high
porosity, is specific for adsorbate size and shape,
has high adsorptive capacity.
51. True or False? Nonpolar adsorbents are more selective in adsorbing substances
than are polar adsorbents.
52. Which of the following is a(are) characteristic(s) of activated carbon?
a. polar
b. absorbs almost all volatile substances
c. has a high adsorptive capacity
d. both b and c, above
e. all of the above
53. Which of the following is a(are) typical adsorption air monitoring problem(s)?
a. irreversible adsorption of the adsorbate
b. variable desorption efficiency of the adsorbate during analysis
c. both a and b, above
d. in-situ reactions on the adsorbent during sampling
e. all of the above
54. True or False? Grab sampling consists of removing a small representative por-
tion of a large sample within an interval of a few seconds to a few minutes.
B2-9
-------
For each of questions 55 through 58, match the grab sampling device with its
appropriate diagram.
55. evacuated flask
56. liquid-displacement
collector
57. gas-displacement
collector
58. bag inflation sampler
a.
Air flow
•Air flow
b.
C.
d. Air flow
Vacuum
pump
Pump
opening
Container
B2-10
-------
59. Which of the following is a(are) potential sampling problem(s) when using bag
grab sampling techniques?
a. sample contamination and memory effects caused by the bag wall.
b. sample deterioration over time
c. both a and b, above
d. in-situ reactions
e. all of the above
60. True or False? Usually the most sensitive analytical techniques must be used to
detect the small pollutant concentrations found in grab samples.
61. True or False? The freezeout sampling method consists of drawing sample air
through collection chambers having progressively lower temperatures. Each
component of the sample air condenses to a liquid and is collected in the
chamber having a temperature which is approximately equal to or less than its
boiling point.
62. Which of the following increase(s) the collection efficiency of a freezeout
sampling train?
a. increasing collection chamber cold surface area
b. decreasing the flow rate of sample air through the sampling train
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
63. True or False? Increasing the cold surface area of a freezeout sampling train
allows a shorter sample detention time to be used.
64. The sample detention time of a freezeout sampling train v) as the
flow rate of sample air through the sampling train increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
B2-11
-------
Section B-2
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. e 5-1
2. g 5-8,5-9
3. f 5-1,5-9
4. a 5-1
5. b 5-9
6. i 5-9
7. h 5-9
8. d 5-10
9. c 5-10
10. c 5-1
11. e 5-1
12. c 5-2
13. e 5-2
14. e 5-3
15. c 5-3,5-23
16. b 5-3,5-23
17. b 5-3,5-23
18. True 5-3,5-4
19. True 5-4
20. b 5-4
21. b 5-4
22. c 5-4
23. True 5-5
24. c 5-5
25. False 5-8
26. c 5-3,5-7
27. c 5-9
28. True 5-10
29. b 5-10
30. b 5-10
31. True 5-11
32. False 5-11
33. False 5-11
34. e 5-11
35. b 5-11
36. True 5-12
37. a 5-12
38. e 5-12
B2-12
-------
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
b
True
c
b
b
True
True
False
c
b
a
c
False
d
e
True
b
d
a
c
e
True
True
c
True
c
5-13
5-14
5-14
5-14
5-14
5-15
5-15
5-15
5-15,5-16
5-16
5-15
5-17
5-16
5-16
5-17
5-26
5-28
5-30
5-29
5-31
5-31
5-31
5-32
5-35
5-35
5-35
B2-13
-------
Section B-3
Preparation of Calibration Gases
Reading Assignment
Pages 6-1 through 6-31 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• Static systems for the preparation of calibration gases
• Dynamic systems for the preparation of calibration gases
• Preparation of zero air
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with the preparation of calibration
gases.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. recognize two general systems for the preparation of calibration gases.
2. identify three static systems for the preparation of calibration gases.
3. recognize optimum conditions for the preparation of calibration gases using
compressed gas cylinders, bags, and permeation tubes.
4. calculate concentrations of calibration gases prepared using bags, permeation
tubes, single dilution systems, and double dilution systems.
5. identify NO2 and SOZ permeation tubes.
6. recognize a method of preparing ozone calibration gas.
7. define zero air for air sampling purposes.
8. identify and recognize characteristics of three adsorbents which are commonly
used in the preparation of zero air.
9. name three methods of removing water vapor from a gas stream and identify
advantages and disadvantages of three adsorbents commonly used.
B3-1
-------
Reading Guidance
• Preparation of calibration gases vising compressed gas cylinders, permeation
tubes, and other dynamic calibration devices is discussed in this reading
assignment. EPA will verify your compressed gas standards, permeation tube
rates, and calibration device outputs at no cost to you. If you would like to use
this service, contact: U.S. EPA, Quality Assurance Division, Standards
Laboratory, EMSL, MD 77, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711
(telephone: Commercial: (919) 541-2S66, FTS: 629-2366).
• Refer often to the equations and figures of the assigned reading material as
you progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section B-3. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any), take Quiz 2. Follow
the directions listed in the Course Introduction section of this guidebook.
• After completing Quiz 2, proceed to Section B-4 of this guidebook.
B3-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section B-3, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are
mastering the material.
1 . Which of the following is a(are) general system(s) for the preparation of
calibration gases?
a. static system
b. dynamic system
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
2. Which of the following is a(are) general static system(s)?
a. pressurized system (compressed gas cylinder)
b. permeation system
c. bag system
d. both a and c, above
e. all of the above
3. Which of the following is an(are) important consideration(s) in preparing
calibration gases using compressed gas cylinders?
a. Due to compressional heating, the cylinder should be allowed to equilibrate
to room temperature before reading the gas pressure to be used in
calculating the concentration of the calibration gas.
b. Gases should be thoroughly mixed after their introduction to the gas
cylinder to avoid gas layering.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
4. v) id of 100% carbon monoxide must be introduced into a lOf bag to
prepare lOf of 50 ppm (fd/£) calibration gas.
a. 5
b. 0.2
c. 50
d. 500
Which of the following is an(are) important consideration(s) in preparing
calibration gases using bags?
a. Pollutant gas should be introduced into the stream of the diluent gas as the
bag is filling.
b. Calibration gas will deteriorate over time in a bag.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
B3-3
-------
6. True or False? A permeation tube consists of a tube which is partially filled
with a liquified gas. The gas above the liquid is able to permeate through the
walls of the tube.
7. The permeation rate of a permeation tube v) as the temperature of
the permeation tube increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
8. The pollutant concentration generated by a permeation system v)
as the diluent gas flow rate of the system increases.
a. remains the same
b. increases
c. decreases
9. If an SOZ (molecular weight: 64 g/g«mol) permeation tube has a permeation
rate of 1.000 /ig/min at a temperature of 25 °C and a pressure of 760 mm of
mercury. What is the SOZ concentration (ppm) at EPA's STP conditions
generated by a permeation system using the permeation tube and having a
total dilution flow rate of 1.000 £/min?
a. 0.382
b. 2.62
c. 0.350
d. 2.86
10. Which of the following is an(are) important consideration(s) in using a
permeation tube system?
a. Absorbed moisture on a permeation tube can form acids that may cause
tube blistering, thus changing the tube's permeation rate.
b. Diluent gas which passes over the permeation tube must be kept at a con-
stant temperature and zero humidity in order to maintain a constant
permeation rate.
c. Permeation tubes should be equilibrated at their operating temperatures
and zero humidity for two to three days before they are used to generate
calibration gas.
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
B3-4
-------
For each of questions 11 and 12, match the permeation tube with its appropriate
diagram.
11. NOj permeation tube
12. SO2 permeation tube
a.
•Teflon tube
-Glass tube
• Liquified gas
b.
Liquified
gas
Teflon tube
13. What is the SO2 concentration (ppm) generated by a single dilution system if
the system's undiluted SO2 concentration is 100 ppm, the flow rate of
undiluted SO2 is 1 f/min, and the flow rate of diluent gas is 9 f/min?
a. 90
b. 11
c. 10
d. 100
B3-5
-------
14. What is the SO2 concentration (ppm) generated by a double dilution system if
the initial dilution system's undiluted SO2 concentration is 100 ppm, the flow
rate of undiluted SO2 is 1 (/mm, and the flow rate of diluent gas is 9 (/mm;
and the final dilution system's flow rate of diluent gas is 10 £/min?
a. 0.5
b. 5.0
c. 10
d. 4.5
15. Which of the following is a(are) method(s) of preparing ozone calibration gas?
a. mixing ozone with nitrogen in compressed gas cylinders
b. irradiating oxygen with an ultraviolet light
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
16. True or False? Some calibration gases can be prepared by injecting liquid
pollutant into a moving diluent gas stream.
17. True or False? Zero air can be defined as air that is free of contaminants and
interferences for a particular analytical technique.
18. True or False? Regardless of its use, zero air always has the same composition.
19. True or False? Activated charcoal can remove ozone, SO2, NO2, and many
organic vapors from a gas stream.
20. True or False? Neither soda lime nor Ascarite can remove CO2 from a gas
stream.
21. True or False? Ascarite can remove acid gases from a gas stream.
22. Which of the following is a(are) general method(s) of removing water vapor
from a gas stream?
a. adsorption
b. impaction
c. condensation
d. both a and c, above
e. all of the above
23. Which of the following is a(are) general method(s) of removing gaseous
contaminants from a gas stream?
a. impaction
b. adsorption
c. absorption
d. both b and c, above
e. both a and b, above
B3-6
-------
24. Which of the following is a(are) common absorbent(s) for removing water
vapor from a gas stream?
a. silica gel
b. calcium sulfate
c. anhydrous magnesium perchlorate
d. all of the above
For each of questions 25 through 27, match the adsorbent with its advantage(s).
25. silica gel
26. calcium sulfate
27. anhydrous magnesium
perchlorate
a. very high efficiency for removing water
vapor
b. easy to handle, can be indefinitely
regenerated
c. easy to regenerate, has a constant water
vapor removal efficiency over a wide
range of temperatures
For each of questions 28 through 30, match the adsorbent with its disadvantage(s).
28. silica gel
29. calcium sulfate
30. anhydrous magnesium
perchlorate
a. not the most efficient adsorbent for
removing water vapor
b. not the most efficient absorbent for
removing water vapor, cannot be
indefinitely regenerated
c. may explode in the presence of organic
vapors, melts when removing water vapor
B3-7
-------
Section B-3
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. c 6-1,6-7
2. d 6-1,6-3,6-4
3. c 6-2,6-3
4. d 6-4
5. c 6-5,6-6
6. True 6-7
7. b 6-10
8. c 6-7
9. a 6-7
10. e 6-8,6-9
11. a 6-12
12. b 6-12
13. c 6-14
14. b 6-15
15. b 6-16
16. True 6-17
17. True 6-18
18. False 6-18
19. True 6-20
20. False 6-21
21. True 6-24
22. d 6-25
23. d 6-19
24. d 6-25
25. b 6-26
26. c 6-27
27. a 6-26,6-27
28. a 6-26,6-27
29. b 6-26,6-27
30. c 6-27
BS-8
-------
Section B-4
Introduction to the Reference Methods
and Reference Measurement Principles
for the Criteria Pollutants,
Continuous Air Quality Monitors, and
Design of Air Quality Monitoring Networks
Reading Assignment
Pages 7-1 through 9-8 of EPA 450/2-80-004 APTI Course 435 Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual.
Reading Assignment Topics
• Reference methods and reference measurement principles for the criteria
pollutants
• Continuous air quality monitors
• Design of air quality monitoring networks
Learning Goal and Objectives
Learning Goal
The purpose of this section is to familiarize you with the reference methods and
reference measurement principles for the criteria pollutants, continuous air quality
monitors, and the design of air quality monitoring networks.
Learning Objectives
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. locate the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), descriptions of
the reference methods and reference measurement principles, and designation
requirements for reference and equivalent methods in the Code of Federal
Regulations.
2. identify the two general types of reference and equivalent methods.
3. describe requirements for the designation of automated reference methods and
manual and automated equivalent methods.
4. identify the reference method or reference measurement principle for each
criteria pollutant.
B4-1
-------
5. identify advantages of using continuous instrumental methods for monitoring
ambient air quality.
6. recognize and identify advantages and disadvantages of coulometric,
amperometric, second derivative spectroscopic, flame photometric,
fluorescence, chemiluminescence, ultraviolet photometric, and nondispersive
infrared air quality monitors.
7. identify two major subsystems of an air quality monitoring network.
8. identify major considerations in designing an air quality monitoring network.
9. associate typical spatial scales of representativeness with their corresponding
linear dimensions.
Reading Guidance
• Two correspondence courses concerning the siting of ambient air quality
monitors, APTI Course 436 Site Selection for the Monitoring of SOt and TSP in
Ambient Air and APTI Course 437 Site Selection for the Monitoring of CO
and Photochemical Pollutants in Ambient Air have been prepared for EPA. If
you would like information concerning these courses, contact EPA's Air Pollu-
tion Training Institute at the address or phone number given in the Course
Introduction section of this guidebook.
• Refer often to the equations and figures of the assigned reading material as you
progress through the assignment.
• When you have finished the reading assignment, complete the review exercise
for Section B-4. It begins on the following page.
• After you have answered the review exercise questions, check your answers.
The correct answers are listed on the page immediately following the review
exercise.
• For any review exercise questions that you answered incorrectly, review the
page(s) of the reading assignment indicated on the answers page.
• After you have reviewed your incorrect answers (if any) take the final
examination for the course. Follow the directions listed in the Course Introduc-
tion section of this guidebook.
• Your course grade results will be mailed to you.
B4-2
-------
Review Exercise
Now that you've completed the assignment for Section B-4, please answer the
following questions. These will help you determine whether or not you are
mastering the material.
For each of questions 1 through 3, match the item with its location in the Code of
Federal Regulations.
1. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) a. Title 40 Part 53
2. descriptions of the reference methods and b. Title 40 Part 50
reference measurement principles for c Appendixes of
monitoring pollutants having NAAQS Title 40 Part 50
3. designation requirements for reference
and equivalent methods
4. Which of the following is a(are) general type(s) of reference methods?
a. manual method
b. automated method
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
5. Which of the following is a(are) general type(s) of equivalent methods?
a. manual method
b. automated method
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
6. True or False? In order to be designated an equivalent method, a manual
method must demonstrate a consistent relationship to the manual reference
method or to the automated reference methods.
7. Which of the following is(are) necessary for the designation of an automated
equivalent method?
a. Performance specifications for automated methods must be met.
b. A measurement principle different from the reference measurement prin-
ciple must be used.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
8. Which of the following is(are) necessary for the designation of an automated
reference method?
a. Performance specifications for automated methods must be met.
b. The reference measurement principle must be used.
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
B4-3
-------
For each of questions 9 through 15, match the pollutant with the description of its
reference method or reference measurement principle.
9. sulfur dioxide a. pararosaniline method
10. nitrogen dioxide b. chemiluminescence with ozone
11. carbon monoxide c. chemiluminescence with ethylene
12. lead d. high volume sampler, gravimetric analysis
13. total suspended e. high volume sampler, atomic
paniculate matter absorption spectrophotometric analysis
14. nonmethane hydrocarbons f. nondispersive infrared spectrometry
15. ozone g. gas chromatography with a flame
ionization detector
16. True or False? Temperature instability of the chemical complex formed during
sampling is a potential problem in using the pararosaniline method.
17. True or False? A flame ionization detector responds the same to all hydro-
carbon compounds.
18. Which of the following is a(are) potential problem(s) when using the lead
reference method?
a. nonuniform distributions of lead on high volume sampler filters when
sampling near heavily traveled roadways
b. chemical and light scattering interferences during lead analysis
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
19. Which of the following is an(are) advantage(s) of using continuous instru-
mental methods for monitoring ambient air quality?
a. real-tune data output
b. in-situ measurements
c. ability to transmit data directly into computer systems
d. both a and c, above
e. all of the above
B4-4
-------
For each of questions 20 through
description.
20. nondispersive infrared
21. coulometric
22. flame photometric
23. fluorescence
24. amperometric
25. second derivative
spectroscopic
26. chemiluminescence
27. ultraviolet photometric
27, match the instrumental method with its
a. uses an electrical charge generated by
oxidation-reduction reactions occurring in
an electrolytic cell to measure gaseous
pollutant concentration
b. uses an electrical current generated by
oxidation-reduction reactions in an
electrolytic cell to measure gaseous
pollutant concentration
c. relates the slope and curvature character-
istics of energy absorption bands to gaseous
pollutant concentration
d. uses the energy emitted by a pollutant
in a hydrogen-rich flame to measure the
pollutant's concentration
e. uses the energy emitted due to electronic
transitions to measure pollutant
concentration
f. uses the light emitted due to the reaction
of a gaseous pollutant with a reagent gas
to measure the pollutant's concentration
g. uses the absorption of energy due to
electronic transitions to measure pollutant
concentration
h. uses the absorption of infrared energy to
measure pollutant concentration
For each of questions 28 through 31, match the instrumental method with its
advantage(s).
28. flame photometric
29. coulometric/amperometric
30. second derivative
spectroscopic
31. fluorescence
a. highly specific for pollutant monitored,
no support gases are needed for its
operation
b. no support gases are needed for its
operation
c. no support gases are needed for its opera-
tion, relatively insensitive to temperature
and sample air flow variations
d. highly specific for sulfur compounds,
no chemical solutions are needed for its
operation, low maintenance requirements,
high sensitivity for sulfur compounds,
fast response
B4-5
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For each of questions 32 through 35, match the instrumental method with its
disadvantage(s).
32. fluorescence a. must use a scrubber to remove sample air
33. second derivative components that react with halogens
spectroscopic b. complexity of measurement principle
34. flame photometric c. if monitoring for a specific sulfur
35. coulometric/amperometric compound, must use a scrubber to remove
other sulfur compounds from the sample
air; potential carbon dioxide interference;
must use hydrogen
d. must use a scrubber to remove hydro-
carbons from the sample air
36. Which of the following is a(are) potential interferent(s) due to broad band
absorption in the nondispersive infrared monitoring of carbon monoxide?
a. carbon dioxide
b. water vapor
c. sulfur dioxide
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
37. True or False? The "negative filtering" technique used in the nondispersive
infrared monitoring of carbon monoxide minimizes interference due to broad
band absorption by causing the ratio of infrared absorbance in the
instrument's detector chambers to be independent of the sample air's
interferent concentration.
38. Which of the following is a(are) major subsystem(s) of an air quality moni-
toring network?
a. sensor system
b. data system
c. data recording and transmission system
d. data processing system
e. both a and b, above
f. all of the above
39. Which of the following is a(are) major subsystem(s) of a data system?
a. data recording and transmission system
b. data processing system
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
40. True or False? Before designing an air quality monitoring network, the uses of
the data that will be generated by the network should be established.
B4-6
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For each of questions 41 through 45, match the spatial scale of representativeness
with its corresponding dimension.
41. microscale a. 100 meters to 0.5 kilometer
42. middle scale b. greater than 50 kilometers
43. neighborhood scale c. less than 100 meters
44. urban scale d. 4 to 50 kilometers
45. regional scale e. 0.5 to 4 kilometers
46. Which of the following should be considered when determining what pollutants
to monitor?
a. pollutants having air quality standards
b. pollutants suspected of being hazardous to public health/welfare
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
47. For which of the following is the use of reference or equivalent methods usually
required?
a. when monitoring for State Implementation Plan (SIP) purposes
b. when monitoring for Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) purposes
c. both a and b, above
d. none of the above
48. Maintenance and calibration information concerning air quality monitors can
be obtained from which of the following?
a. monitor manufacturers
b. monitor users
c. maintenance and calibration records
d. all of the above
49. True or False? Most of the EPA ambient air monitoring regulations are found
in Title 40 Part 58 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
50. True or False? The major problem in designing data systems is usually trying
to get a balance of manpower and equipment.
51. True or False? When designing a data transmission system, the speed with
which the data will be used should be determined.
52. Which of the following is a(are) component(s) of a data processing system?
a. data format
b. data validation
c. data analysis
d. both a and c, above
e. all of the above
53. True or False? A data format is a systematic listing of the data recorded.
54. True or False? A data format should be clearly defined and well documented.
55. True or False? The SAROAD data format is available from EPA.
B4-7
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56. True or False? Data validation should be performed as closely as possible in
place and time to the collection of the data.
57. True or False? Data should be analyzed before they are validated.
58. Which of the following should be considered when designing a data storage
system?
a. Physical deterioration of the data must be prevented.
b. Data should be stored logically.
c. The storage system must be secure to provide a legal chain of custody.
d. both a and b, above
e. all of the above
59. Which of the following should be considered when designing a data retrieval
system?
a. Proper personnel should have easy access to the data.
b. Retrieval procedures should be systematic.
c. both a and b, above
60. True or False? An air quality monitoring network needs a comprehensive
quality assurance program.
61. True or False? The gas filter correlation technique greatly reduces interference
effects associated with nondispersive infrared CO analyzers.
B4-8
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Section B-4
Review Exercise Answers
Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
1. b 7-1
2. c 7-1
3. a 7-1
4. c 7-1
5. c 7-1
6. True 7-2
7. c 7-2,7-3
8. c 7-3
9. a 7-2,7-3
10. b 7-2,7-5
11. f 7-2,7-6
12. e 7-2,7-8
13. d 7-2,7-6
14. g 7-2,7-8
15. c 7-2,7-7
16. True 7-4
17. False 7-8
18. c 7-8,7-9
19. e 8-1
20. h 8-14
21. a 8-21
22. d 8-2
23. e 8-4
24. b 8-21
25. c 8-12
26. f 8-7
27. g 8-10
28. d 8-4
29. b 8-23
30. a 8-13
31. c 8-5
32. d 8-6
33. b 8-14
34. c 8-4
35. a 8-24
36. d 8-15
37. True 8-16, 8-17
38. e 9-1
B4-9
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Page(s) of Atmospheric
Sampling: Student Manual
39. c 9-1
40. True 9-1
41. c 9-3
42. a 9-3
43. e 9-3
44. d 9-3
45. b 9-3
46. c 9-3
47. c 9-4
48. d 9-4
49. True 9-5
50. True 9-6
51. True 9-6
52. e 9-6
53. True 9-6
54. True 9-6
55. True 9-7
56. True 9-7
57. False 9-7
58. e 9-7
59. c 9-8
60. True 9-8
61. True 8-20
B4-10
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TECHNICAL REPORT DATA
/Please read Instructions on the reverse before completing)
1 REPORT NO.
EPA 450/2-82-004
3. RECIPIENT'S ACCESSION»NO.
4. TITLE AND SUBTITLE
APTI Correspondence Course 434
Introduction to Ambient Air Monitoring: Guidebook
Second Edition
S. REPORT DATE
Julv 1983
6. PERFORMING ORGANIZATION CODE
7. AUTHOR(S)
8. PERFORMING ORGANIZATION REPORT NO.
B. M. Ray
9. PERFORMING ORGANIZATION NAME AND ADDRESS
Northrop Services, Inc.
P.O. Box 12313
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
10. PROGRAM ELEMENT NO.
B18A2C
11. CONTRACT/GRANT NO.
68-02-3573
12. SPONSORING AGENCY NAME AND ADDRESS
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
Manpower and Technical Information Branch
Air Pollution Training Institute
Research Triangle Park, NC 27711
13. TYPE OF REPORT AND PERIOD COVERED
Student Guidebook
14. SPONSORING AGENCY CODE
EPA-OANR-OAQPS
15. SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES
Project officer for this publication is R.E. Townsend, EPA-ERC, RTF, NC 27711
16. ABSTRACT
This Guidebook was developed for use in the Air Pollution Training Institute's
Correspondence Course 434, "Introduction to Ambient Air Monitoring". It contains
reading assignments and review exercises covering the following topics:
- Introduction to Atmospheric Sampling
- Basic Properties of Gases
- Air Movers and Air Measuring Instruments
- Ambient Sampling of Particulate Matter
- Manual Sampling of Ambient Gaseous Pollutants
- Preparation of Calibration Gases
- Introduction to the Reference Methods and Reference Measurement Principles
for the Criteria Pollutants
- Introduction to Continuous Air Quality Monitors
- Introduction to the Design of Air Quality Monitoring Networks
- Introduction to Pertinent Statistical Techniques for Air Monitoring
This Guidebook is designed for use in conjunction with "APTI Course 435
Atmospheric Sampling: Student Manual Second Edition" (EPA 450/2-80-004).
KEY WORDS AND DOCUMENT ANALYSIS
DESCRIPTORS
b.lDENTIFIERS/OPEN ENDED TERMS C. COSATI Field/Group
Training
Air Pollution
Measurement
Ambient Air Monitoring
Training Course
13B
51
68A
18. DISTRIBUTION STATEMENT
unlimited
Available from the National Technical
Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Rd.,
Springfield. VA 22161
19. SECURITY CLASS (ThisReport)
unclassified
21. NO. OF PAGES
105
20. SECURITY CLASS (Thispage)
unclassified
22. PRICE
EPA Form 2220-1 (9-73)
B4-11
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